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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (30 June 2015)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (30 June 2015)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


1.First G-7 nation who joined the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank?

1.france
2.britain
3.germany
4.canada

2.India,s biggest trade partner is

1.china
2.america
3.russia
4.britain

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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SBI PO 2015 Preliminary Exam Analysis

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SBI PO 2015 Preliminary Exam Analysis


Quantitative Aptitude (35 Question – Easy to Moderate)

Section Good Attempts
Commercial mathematics 8-10
Probability, Permutation & Combination 3
Data Interpretation 10
Number Series 4
Comparison of variable 4
Approximate 4

Logical Reasoning - (35 Question – Easy to Moderate)

Section Good Attempts
Seating Arrangement 5
Syllogism 5
Puzzle 5
Comparison of Rank 5
Blood Relation 3
Direction Sense 2
Coding Decoding 4-5

English–(30 Question – Moderate to Tough)

Section Good Attempts
Cloze Test 5
Reading Comprehension 10
Parajumble 5
Spot the Error 5
Fill in the Blanks (2 Blanks in one question) 5

Overall Quantitative Aptitude (Especially DI) was easy, Logical reasoning was easy to moderate. English was time consuming as RC and Para jumble was lengthy. Average attempt by students – around 50-55 questions. In such type of paper, student should clear the English cut-off and focus more on QA & LR for scoring.

Disclaimer: All information on analysis are based on independent analysis and evaluation made by SSCPORTAL.IN. We do not take responsibility for any decision that might be taken, based on this information.

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (29 June 2015)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (29 June 2015)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


1. 2018 commonwealth game will be hosted by

1.japan
2.thailand
3.australia
4.england

2. National payment corporation of india is incorporated in

1.2009
2.2008
3.2012
4.2014

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (27 June 2015)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (27 June 2015)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


1.central governments which ministry using highest spectrum according to coai

1.information broadcasting
2.defence
3.rural development
4.external affairs

2.what will be the initial capital of brics bank

1.50 billion$
2.100 billion$
3.150 billion $
4,125 billion $

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013 "Computer Knowledge"

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject:  Computer Knowledge


181. Macros stored in the global macro sheet can be used

(1) in the current document only
(2) in any document
(3) can be used only with other macros of  the global macro sheet
(4) not consistent behaviour
(5) None of the above

182. About pasting from the clip board

(1) a part of the clip board contents can be pasted
(2) whole of the contents of clip board can be pasted
(3) sometimes (1) and sometimes (2)
(4) (1) and (2)
(5) None of the above

183. One of the following statements is not true for BUFFERS command

(1) Increasing numbers of BUFFERS can speed program execution, but only to a certain extent
(2) The more buffers that exist the more sectors can be stored in memory; hence fewer accesses of disk are necessary
(3) The BUFFERS command is used to establish the number of disk buffers set up by MS-DOS during booting
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above

184. EPROM can be used for

(1) erasing the contents of ROM
(2) reconstructing the contents of ROM
(3) erasing and reconstructing the contents of ROM
(4) duplicating the ROM
(5) None of the above

185. Attributes can be defined for

(1) entity
(2) switch board
(3) macro
(4) pages
(5) None of the above

186. Where will we find the referential integrity command ?

(1) Tools
(2) View
(3) Format
(4) Table
(5) None of these

187. Anything that is typed in a worksheet appears

(1) in the formula bar only
(2) in the active cell only
(3) in both active cell and formula bar
(4) in the formula bar first and when we press ENTER it appears in active cell
(5) None of the above

188. Which bar is usually located below the Title Bar that provides categorised options ?

(1) Menu Bar (2) Status Bar
(3) Toolbar (4) Scroll Bar
(5) None of the above

189. A pixel is

(1) a computer program that draws picture
(2) a picture stored in the secondary memory
(3) the smallest resolvable part of a picture
(4) a virus
(5) None of the above

190. How many types of cell references are available in Excel ?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 10
(5) None of these

191. VIRUS stands for

(1) Very Important Record User Searched
(2) Verify Interchanged Result Until Source
(3) Virtual Information Resource Under Seize
(4) Very Important Resource Under Search
(5) None of the above

192. Unlike filters queries can be saved as in a database.

(1) objects
(2) filters
(3) database
(4) Any of the above
(5) None of these

193. Table of contents can be prepared by using

(1) macros
(2) headings as HI, H2, H3 and more in the document
(3) by table of contents in tools menu
(4) (2) and (3)
(5) None of the above

194. Table in Word is a grid of rows and columns, with each cell can have

(1) text or graphics
(2) only text
(3) only graphics
(4) both
(5) None of these

195. What is a database ?

(1) It is a collection of data arranged in rows
(2) It is a collection of data arranged in columns
(3) It is a collection of data arranged in rows and columns
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above

196. Which switch should be used in the DIR command to view files in a directories ?

(1) /P
(2) /W
(3) /S
(4) /L
(5) None of these

197. When a key is pressed on the keyboard, which standard is used for converting the keystroke into the corresponding bits ?

(1) ANSI
(2) ASCII
(3) EBCDIC
(4) ISO
(5) None of the above

198. External database is

(1) Database created in EXCEL
(2) Database created using DBMS package.
(3) Database created in MS-Word
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above

199. Which command we will give if we want to show the database objects with it’s description ?

(1) Details
(2) Show
(3) List
(4) Any of the above
(5) None of the above

200. Word allows user to import graphics from

(1) the library which comes bundled with Word
(2) any where in the computer
(3) various graphics format like gif, bmp, png, etc
(4) only gif format
(5) None of the above

 

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013 "General Awareness"

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject:  General Awareness


141. Which of the following is a receipt listed in India and traded in rupees declaring ownership of shares of a foreign company?

(1) Indian Depository Receipt (IDR)
(2) European Depository Receipt (EDR)
(3) Global Depository Receipt (GDR)
(4) American Depository Receipt (ADR)
(5) Luxemburg Depository Receipt (LDR)

142. A bank without any branch network that offers its services remotely through online banking, telephone/mobile banking and interbank ATM network alliances is known as

(1) Universal Banking
(2) Indirect Bank
(3) Door Step Bank
(4) A Direct Bank
(5) Unit Banking

143. Which of the following Indian Universities is Asia’s largest residential university?

(1) Allahabad University
(2) Utkal University
(3) Banaras Hindu University
(4) Anna University
(5) Jawaharlal Nehru University

144. In October, 2013, which country has confirmed plans to create a secure mail service to protect its citizens and businesses against foreign espionage?

(1) Mexico
(2) Brazil
(3) Sweden
(4) Germany
(5) None of these

145. The campaign name ‘Heal India’ aims to create awareness about which of the following diseases?

(1) Mental illness
(2) AIDS
(3) Leprosy
(4) Alzheimer
(5) None of these

146. The target set by the UIDAI for issuance of Aadhaar cards upto 2014 is

(1) 50 crore cards
(2) 55 crore cards
(3) 45 crore cards
(4) 40 crore cards
(5) 60 crore cards

147. Which of the following nations has signed a comprehensive free trade agreement with European Union?

(1) Japan
(2) China
(3) Russia
(4) Canada
(5) None of these

148. According to the provisions of the income Tax Act, 1961 a resident individual is categorised as a ‘very senior citizen’ when he is

(1) 80 yr of age or older
(2) 75 yr of age or older
(3) 90 yr of age or older
(4) 85-yr of age or older
(5) 65 yr of age or older

149. Who among the following has recently been conferred with the first Yash Chopra Memorial Award?

(1) Other than those given as options
(2) Madhuri Dixit Nene
(3) Ramesh Sippy
(4) Lata Mangeshkar
(5) AR Rahman

150. Which of the following is an investment advisory discipline?

(1) Corporate Industrial Finance
(2) Offshare Banking
(3) Wholesale Banking
(4) Wealth Management
(5) Trade Finance


151. The Aadhar-enabled Payment System (AEPS) is a bank-led model that facihtates banking facilities through banking correspondents across banks. However, Aadhaar- enabled basic types of banking transactions do ‘not’ include

(1) Aadhaar to Aadhaar funds transfer
(2) Small overdraft facility
(3) Cash withdrawal
(4) Balance enquiry
(5) Cash deposit

152. A type of fraud wherein criminals use an innocent person’s details to open or use an account to carry out financial transactions is known as

(1) identity theft
(2) hacking
(3) money laundering
(4) espionage
(5) phishing

153. Deepak Lathore is related to which of the following sports?

(1) Hockey
(2) Cricket
(3) Badminton
(4) Football
(5) Weightlifting

154. Who among the following is the author of the book “The Lowland”?

(1) Jhumpa Lahiri
(2) Amitav Ghosh
(3) Salman Rushdie
(4) Hamid Ansari
(5) Chetan Bhagat

155. Which of the following Indian actresses- has recently (October, 2013 been honoured at the British House of Commons for her contribution to the global entertainment industry?

(1) Shabana Azmi
(2) Kareena Kapoor
(3) Nandita Das
(4) Aishwarya Rai Bachchan
(5) Vidya Balan

156. Who among the following is the current Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India?

(1) KG Balakrishnan
(2) Ranjit Sinha
(3) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(4) VS Sampath
(5) SY Quraishi

157. The part of a company’s earnings or profits which are paid out to shareholders is known as

(1) capital gains
(2) taxes
(3) interest on borrowings
(4) dividends
(5) penal interest

158. NABARD is responsible for regulating and Supervising the functions of

(1) Investment and Industrial Finance Banks
(2) Cooperative Banks and Regional Rural Banks
(3) Corporate Finance and Overseas Banking Units
(4) Private Sector and Multinational Banks
(5) Reserve Bank of India

159. The government of India has announced a ‘funding for lending’ scheme. Who are. the beneficiaries for this scheme?

(1) Commercial Banks
(2) Regional Rural Banks
(3) Micro-finance Institutions
(4) Finance Departments of the State Governments
(5) None of the above

160. The arrangement under which banks sell insurance products acting as the agents of the respective companies is called the

(1) Insurance joint venture
(2) Bancassurance Model
(3) Hybrid Insurance Model
(4) Insurance Broking
(5) Integrated Model

161. The concept of ‘Micro Credit’ essentially concentrates on

(1) consumption smoothening as and when needed
(2) providing safe place to hold savings
(3) accepting deposits
(4) provision of credit to the poor
(5) facility to transfer money

162. With effect from July 1, 2012, for calculation of lending, rates, the Reserve Bank of India has advised banks to switch over to the

(1) MSF Rate System
(2) Reverse Repo Rate System
(3) Bank Rate System
(4) Repo Rate System
(5) Base Rate System

163. An Equity share is also commonly referred to as

(1) ordinary share
(2) debenture
(3) convertible share
(4) security receipt
(5) preferred stock

164. Which among the following Companies in India has a tie-up with the Japanese Financial Nomura for insurance market?

(1) ICICI Bank
(2) UCO Bank
(3) Kotak Finance
(4) Life Insurance Corporation of India
(5) None of the above

165. The seed capital of Bhartiya Mahila Bank is

(1) Rs 2000 crore
(2) Rs 1000 crore
(3) Rs 4000 crore
(4) Rs 3000 crore
(5) None of these

166. The World Health Organization (WHO) is a specialised agency of the United Nations (UN) that is concerned with international Public Health. It is headquartered at

(1) Sweden
(2) Switzerland
(3) United Kingdom
(4) France
(5) Germany

167. The process by which a life insurance policyholder can transfer all rights, title and interest under a policy contract to a third person is known as

(1) Assignment of the policy
(2) Hypothecation of the policy
(3) Reinvestment of the policy
(4) Negotiation of the policy
(5) Nomination of the policy

168. Which of the following communities is ‘not’ notified as a ‘minority community’ by the ministry of Welfare, Government of India?

(1) Sikhs
(2) Zoroastrians
(3) Buddhists
(4) Jains
(5) Christians

169. In October, 2013, which of the following countries has decided to scrap its two currency system?

(1) Mongolia
(2) Sweden
(3) Cuba
(4) Jamaica
(5) None of these

170. Cheraw, the Bamboo Dance, is of which Indian states?

(1) Mizoram
(2) Sikkim
(3) Arunachal Pradesh
(4) Manipur
(5) Asom

171. 8th National Conference of Krishi Vigyan Kendra-2013 was held at

(1) Chennai
(2) Mumbai
(3) Lucknow
(4) Kolkata
(5) Bangalore

172. Which of the following institutions is regarded as the ‘Lender of the Last Resort’ by Banks in India?

(1) State Bank of India (SBI)
(2) The State Treasury
(3) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(4) World Bank
(5) Department of Financial Services (DFS)

173. A bank’s ‘fixed deposit’ is also referred to as a

(1) term deposit
(2) savings bank deposit
(3) current deposit
(4) demand deposit
(5) home savings deposit

174. To improve access of the poor to banking, RBI has advised banks to open branches with minimum infrastructure supporting up to 8 to 10 Business Correspondents (BC) at a reasonable distance of 3-4 km. Such branches are known as

(1) Nodal branches
(2) Micro branches
(3) Mini branches
(4) Ultra small branches
(5) Satellite branches

175. Which of the following services relate to execution of transactions directly with consumers, rather than corporations or other banks?

(1) Wholesale Banking Services
(2) Industrial Banking Services
(3) Investment Banking Services
(4) Corporate Banking Services
(5) Retail Banking Services

176. World Food Day is celebrated every year around the world on

(1) July 4
(2) October 16
(3) Other than those given as options
(4) August 12
(5) May 18

177. As per Census 2011, which of the following Indian states has the lowest population density?

(1) Nagaland
(2) Manipur
(3) Arunachal Pradesh
(4) Himachal Pradesh
(5) Meghalaya

178. The minimum age for becoming a member of Rajya Sabha is

(1) 28yr
(2) 40yr
(3) 30yr
(4) 35yr
(5) 25yr

179. Banks’ mandatory lending to farmers for agriculture, micro and small enterprises and other weaker sections where in banks are required to lend up to 40% of the loans is generally described as

(1) Para banking
(2) Sub-prime lending
(3) Retail lending
(4) Non-priority sector lending
(5) Priority sector lending

180. Which of the following statements regarding the ‘Direct Benefits Transfer Scheme (DBT)’ of the government of India is ‘not’ true?

(1) The scheme covers LPQ subsidies, pension payments and scholarships
(2) Indirect transfers of benefits are more prone to leakage than direct transfers
(3) Under DBT, money is directly transferred into bank accounts of beneficiaries
(4) The scheme was launched on January 1, 2013 to cover 20 districts initially
(5) The scheme is likely to increase the subsidy bill of the government

 

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013 "Quantitative Aptitude"

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject: Quantitative Aptitude


Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) In each of the following questions, a question is followed by information given in three Statements I, II and III. You have to study the question along with the statements and decide the information given in which of the statement(s) is necessary to answer the question.

91. In how many days 10 women can finish the work?

I. 10 men finish the work in 6 days.
II. 10 women and 10 men finish the work in days.
III. If 10 men work 3 days and after that 10 women are deployed to work for men, the rest work is finished in 4 days.

(1) I and II
(2) Any two of three
(3) I and III
(4) II and III
(5) None of these

92. What is the present age of Sabir?

I. The present age of Sabir is half of his father’s age.
II. After five years the ratio of ages of Sabir and his father is 6:11.
III. Sabir is younger to his brother by five years.

(1) 1 and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and III
(4) All of these
(5) Cannot be determined

93. What is two digit number?

I. The difference between the number and the number formed by interchanging the digit is 27.
II. The difference between two digits is 3.
III. The digit at unit’s place is less than that at ten’s place by 3.

(1) 1 and II
(2) I and either II or III
(3) I and III
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

94. What is the rate of interest Percent per annum?

I. An amount doubles itself in 5 yr on simple interest.
II. Difference between the compound interest and the simple interest earned on a certain amount in two years is Rs400.
III. Simple interest earned per annum is Rs2000.

(1) Only I
(2) II and III
(3) Any two of three
(4) I or II and III
(5) Only I or II and III

95. What is the cost of flooring the rectangular hall?

I. Length and the breadth of the hall are in the ratio of 3:2.
II. Length of the hall is 48 m and cost of flooring is Rs850 per sq m.
III. Perimeter of the hall is 160 m and cost of flooring is Rs850 per sq m.
(1) I and II (2) I and III
(3) Only III
(4) I and either II or III
(5) Any two of the three

96. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 20% and the denominator is increased by 25%, the fraction obtained is . What was the original fraction?

(1) 5/7
(2) 4/7
(3) 3/8
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of the three

97. If the positions of the digits of a two-digit number are interchanged, the number obtained is smaller than the original number by 27. If the digits of the number are in the ratio of 1 : 2, what is the original number?

(1) 36 (2) 63
(3) 48
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

98. One of the angles of a quadrilateral is thrice the smaller angle of a parallelogram. The respective ratio between the adjacent angles of the parallelogram is 4:5. Remaining three angles of the quadrilateral are in ratio 4:11:9 respectively. What is the sum of the largest and the smallest angles of the quadrilateral?

(1) 255°
(2) 260°
(3) 265°
(4) 270°
(5) None of these

99. An aeroplane flies with an average speed of 756 km/h. A helicopter takes 48 h to cover twice the distance covered by aeroplane in 9 h. How much distance will the helicopter cover in 18 h? (Assuming that flights are non-stop and moving with uniform speed.)

(1) 5010 km
(2) 4875 km
(3) 5760 km
(4) 5103 km
(5) None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 105-109) In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.

105. 29, 37, 21,43 ,13, 53, 5

(1) 37
(2) 53
(3) 13
(4) 21
(5) 43

106. 600, 125, 30, 13, 7.2, 6.44, 6.288

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 12
(5) None of these

107. 80, 42, 24, 13.5, 8.75, 6.375, 5.1875

(1) 8.75
(2) 13.5
(3) 24
(4) 6.375
(5) 42

108. 10, 8, 13, 35, 135, 671, 4007

(1) 8
(2) 671
(3) 135
(4) 13
(5) 35

109. 150, 290, 560, 1120, 2140, 4230, 8400

(1) 2140
(2) 560
(3) 1120
(4) 4230
(5) 290

Directions (Q.Nos. 110-114) These questions are based on the following data. The distribution of appeared and qualified aspirants in competitive examination from different States.

Total appeared aspirants = 45000

110. What is the ratio of the number of appeared aspirants from States C and E together to that of the appeared aspirants from States A and F together?

(1) 17:33
(2) 11:13
(3) 13:27
(4) 17:27
(5) None of these

111. In which state the percentage of qualified aspirants to appeared aspirants is the least?

(1) C
(2) F
(3) D
(4) E
(5) G

112. What is the difference in the number of qualified aspirants in states D and G?

(1) 690
(2) 670
(3) 780
(4) 720
(5) None of these

113. What is the percentage of qualified aspirants with respect to appeared aspirants from states B and C taken together? (Rounded off to two decimal places.)

(1) 23.11
(2) 24.21
(3) 21.24
(4) 23
(5) None of these

114. What is the ratio between number of candidates qualified from States B and D together and the number of candidates appeared from States ‘C respectively?

(1) 8:37
(2) 11:12
(3) 37 : 40
(4) 7 : 37
(5) None of the above

Directions (Q. Nos. 115-119) In the following questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give

sector expenditure there was a continuous decrease in which sector?
(1) In no sector (2) Health
(3) Education (4) Social services
(5) Social welfare and related areas

123. For plan VI out of public sector expenditure, what per cent of expenditure is on Housing and Urban services?

(1) 0.35
(2) 25
(3) 25.5
(4) 2.5
(5) 20.5

124. For all the given plans, what was the difference in expenditure on education and health?

(1) Rs 220400000
(2) Rs 224000000
(3) Rs 22040000000
(4) Rs 220400000000
(5) None of these

125. The respective ratio between the present ages of son, mother, father and grandfather is 2:7:8:12 The average age of son and mother is 27 yr. What will be mother’s age after 7 yr?

(1) 40yr
(2) 41 yr
(3) 48 yr
(4) 49 yr
(5) None of these

126. In an examination, Raman scored 25 marks less than Rohit. Rohit scored 45 more marks than Sonia. Rohan scored 75 marks which is 10 more than Sonia. Ravi’s score is 50 less than, maximum marks of the test. What approximate percentage of marks did Ravi score in the examination, if he gets 34 marks more than Raman?

(1) 90
(2) 70
(3) 80
(4) 60
(5) 85

127. 8 men and 4 women together can complete a piece, of work in 6 days. The work done by a man in one day is double the work done by a woman in one day. If 8 men and 4 women started working and after 2 days 4 men left and 4 new women joined, in how many more days will the work be completed?

(1) 5 days
(2) 8 days
(3) 6 days
(4) 4 days
(5) 9 days

128. Mr Giridhar spends 50% of his monthly income on household items and out of the remaining he spends 50% on transport, 25% on entertainment, 10% on sports and the remaining amount of Rs 900 is saved. What is Mr Giridhar’s monthly income?

(1) Rs 6000
(2) Rs 12000
(3) Rs 9000
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

129. The cost of fencing a circular plot at the rate of Rs15 per m is Rs 3300. What will be the cost of flooring the plot at the rate of Rs 100 per sq m?

(1) Rs 385000
(2) Rs 220000
(3) Rs 350000
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

130. The simple interest accrued on a sum of certain principal in 8 yr at the rate of 13% per year is Rs 6500. What would be the compound interest accrued on that principal at the rate of 8% per year in 2 yr?

(1) Rs 1040
(2) Rs 1020
(3) Rs 1060
(4) Rs 1200
(5) None of these


Directions (Q. Nos. 131-135) Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow.
There are two trains . A and B. Both trains have four different types of coaches viz. General coaches, sleeper coaches, first class coaches and AC coaches. In train A, there are total 700 passengers. Train B has 30% more passengers than train A. 20% of the passengers of train A are in general coaches. One-fourth of the total number of passengers of train A are in AC coaches. 23% of the passengers of train A are in sleeper class coaches. Remaining passengers of train A are in first class coaches. Total number of passengers in AC coaches in both the trains together is 480. 30% of the number of passengers of train B is in sleeper class coaches, 10% of the total passengers .of train B are in first class coaches. Remaining passengers of train B are in general class coaches.

131. What is the ratio of the number of passengers in first class coaches of train A to the number of passengers in sleeper class coaches of train B?

(1) 13:7
(2) 7:13
(3) 32 : 39
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

132. What is the total number of passengers in the general coaches of train A and the AC coaches of train B together?

(1) 449
(2) 459
(3) 435
(4) 445
(5) None of these

133. What is the difference between the number of passengers in the AC coaches of train A and total number of passengers in sleeper class coaches and first class coaches together of train B?

(1) 199
(2) 178
(3) 187
(4) 179
(5) None of these

134. Total number of passengers in general class coaches in both the trains together is approximately. What percentage of total number of passengers in train B?

(1) 35
(2) 42
(3) 45
(4) 38
(5) 31

135. If cost of per ticket of first class coach ticket is Rs 450, what total amount will be generated from first class coaches of train A?

(1) Rs 100080
(2) Rs 108000
(3) Rs 100800
(4) Rs 10800
(5) None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 136-140) Study the following pie chart carefully to answer the questions.
Degree Wise Break-up of Employees Working in Various Departments of an Organization and the ratio of Men to Women
 

136. What is the number of men working in the Marketing department?

(1) 462
(2) 454
(3) 418
(4) 424
(5) None of these

137. What is the respective ratio of the number of women working in the HR department to the number of men working in the IT department?

(1) 11:12
(2) 17:29
(3) 13:28
(4) 12:35
(5) None of these

138. The number of men working in the production department of the organisation forms what per cent of the total number of employees working in that department?

(1) 88%
(2) 90%
(3) 75%
(4) 65%
(5) None of these

139. The number of women working in the IT department of the organization forms what per cent of the total number of employees in the organization from all departments together?

(1) 3.2%
(2) 4.8%
(3) 6.3%
(4) 5.6%
(5) None of these

140. What is the total number of men working in the organization?

(1) 2198
(2) 2147
(3) 2073
(4) 2236
(5) None of these

 

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IBPS (PO) V Notification Released with New Pattern - 2015

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IBPS (PO) V Notification Released with New Pattern - 2015

The online examination (Preliminary and Main) for the  next Common Recruitment Process for selection of  personnel for Probationary Officer/ Management Trainee posts in the Participating Organisations listed below is tentatively scheduled in October 2015.

PARTICIPATING ORGANISATIONS:

  1. Allahabad Bank
  2. Andhra Bank
  3. Bank of Baroda
  4. Bank of India
  5. Bank of Maharashtra
  6. Bharatiya Mahila Bank
  7. Canara Bank
  8. Central Bank of India
  9. Corporation Bank
  10. Dena Bank
  11. ECGC
  12. EXIM Bank
  13. IDBI Bank
  14. Indian Bank
  15. Indian Overseas Bank
  16. Oriental Bank of Commerce
  17. Punjab National Bank
  18. Punjab & Sind Bank
  19. Syndicate Bank
  20. UCO BankUnion Bank of India
  21. United Bank of India
  22. Vijaya Bank
  23. Any other bank or financial institution

Educational Qualifications (As on 01.08.2015):

A Degree (Graduation) in any discipline from a University recognised by the Govt. Of India or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government.

The candidate must possess valid Mark-sheet / Degree Certificate that he/ she is a graduate on the day he / she registers and indicate the percentage of marks obtained in Graduation while registering online.

Age (As on 01.07.2015):

Minimum: 20 years Maximum: 30 years i.e. A candidate must have been born not earlier than 02.07.1985 and not later than 01.07.1995 (both dates inclusive)

Exam Syllabus:

The structure of the Examinations which will be conducted online are as follows:

Preliminary Examination Syllabus:

Sr. No. Name of Tests No. of Qs Maximum Marks Duration
1 English Language 30 30 Composite time of  1 hour
2 Quantitative Aptitude 35 35
3 Reasoning Ability 35 35
 

Total

100 100

Main Examination Syllabus:

Sr. No. Name of Tests No. of Qs Maximum Marks Duration
1 Reasoning 50 50 Composite time of  2 hour
2 English Language 40 40
3 Quantitative Aptitude 50 50
4 General Awareness (with special reference to Banking Industry) 40 40
5 Computer Knowledge 20 20
  Total 200 200

The above tests except the Tests of English Language will be available bilingually, i.e. English and Hindi.

Application Fees:

  • Rs. 100/- for SC/ST/PWD candidates.
  • Rs. 600 /- for all others

Bank Transaction charges for Online Payment of application fees/ intimation charges will have to be borne by the candidate

How to Apply:

(1) Candidates are first required to go to the IBPS’s website www.ibps.in and click on the Home Page to open the link “CWE PO/MT” and then click on the option “CLICK HERE TO APPLY ONLINE FOR CWEPROBATIONARY OFFICERS/ MANAGEMENT TRAINEES (CWE-PO/MT-V )” to open the On-Line Application Form.

(2) Candidates will have click on “CLICK HERE FOR NEW REGISTRATION” to register their application by entering their basic information in the online application form. After that a provisional registration number and password will be generated by the system and displayed on the screen. Candidate should note down the Provisional registration number and password. An Email & SMS indicating the Provisional Registration number and Password will also be sent. They can reopen the saved data using Provisional registration number and password and edit the particulars, if needed.

(3) Candidates are required to upload their photograph and signature as per the specifications given in the Guidelines for Scanning and Upload of Photograph and Signature (Annexure II).

(4) Candidates are advised to carefully fill in the online application themselves as no change in any of the data filled in the online application will be possible/ entertained. Prior to submission of the online application candidates are advised to use the “SAVE AND NEXT” facility to verify the details in the online application form and modify the same if required. No change is permitted after clicking on FINAL SUBMIT Button. Visually Impaired candidates are responsible for carefully verifying/ getting the details filled in, in the online application form properly verified and ensuring that the same are correct prior to submission as no change is possible after submission.

Important Dates:

The tentative schedule of events is as follows:

Activity Dates
On-line registration including Edit/Modification of Application by candidates 10.07.2015 to 01.08.2015
Payment of Application Fees/Intimation Charges (Online) 10.07.2015 to 01.08.2015
Download of call letters for Pre- Exam Training 09.09.2015 to 19.09.2015
Conduct of Pre-Exam Training 8.09.2015 to 23.09.2015
Download of call letters for online examination -  Preliminary 23.09.2015 onwards
Online Examination – Preliminary 03.10.2015, 04.10.2015
10.10.2015, 11.10.2015
Result of Online exam – Preliminary October 2015
Download of Call letter for Online exam - Main October 2015
Online Examination – Main 31.10.2015
Declaration of Result – Main November 2015
Download of call letters for interview December 2015
Conduct of interview January 2016
Provisional Allotment April 2016

Click Here for Official Notification

Click Here to Apply Online

Courtesy: IBPS

Important Links:

Syllabus

Books

Previous Papers

Study Material

IBPS PO Online Test Series

IBPS PO CWE PRE + MAINS Exam Syllabus 2015 (Pattern Changed)

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IBPS PO EXAM SYLLABUS

Common Written Examination (CWE)  -  (Probationary Officers/ Management Trainees)

Preliminary Examination Syllabus:

Sr. No. Name of Tests No. of Qs Maximum Marks Duration
1 English Language 30 30 Composite time of  1 hour
2 Quantitative Aptitude 35 35
3 Reasoning 35 35
 

Total

100 100

Mains Examination Syllabus:-

Name of Tests (Objective) No. of Qs  Maximum Marks  Duration
Reasoning 50 50 Composite
Time of
2 Hours
English Language 40 40
Quantitative Aptitude 50 50
General Awareness
(with special reference to Banking Industry)
40 40
Computer Knowledge 20 20

Total

200

200

 

The above tests except the Test of English Language and Descriptive Paper on English Composition will be printed bilingually, i.e. English and Hindi.

IBPS reserves the right to modify the structure of the examination which will be intimated through its website. Other detailed information regarding the examination will be given in an Information Handout, which will be made available for the candidates to download along with the call letters from the authorised IBPS website www.ibps.in

Penalty for Wrong Answers: 

There will be penalty for wrong answers marked in the Objective Test. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate one fourth or 0.25 of  the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty to arrive at corrected score. If for any question a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong even if one of the given answers happens to be right and there will be the same penalty of 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question deducted as penalty. If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

Courtesy: ibps.in

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (26 June 2015)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (26 June 2015)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


1.New deadline to replace pre 2005 currency notes is---

1.1st july 2015
2.2nd oct 2015
3.31st dec 2015
4.none of these

2.Q. Currently which one of the following is not the deputy governor of RBI

1.h.r.khan
2..urijit patel
3..s.s mundra
4..y.h.malegam

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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Click Here to Join Online Course for IBPS Exam

Click Here to Buy Study-Kit for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here For Archive


 

IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013 "English Language"

 

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject:  English Language


Directions (Q. Nos. 51-58) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The great fear in Asia a short while ago was that the region would suffer through the wealth destruction already taking place in the U.S as a result of the financial crisis. Stock markets tumbled as exports plunged and economic growth deteriorated. Lofty property prices in China and elsewhere looked set to bust as credit tightened and buyers evaporated. But with surprising speed, fear in Asia swung back to greed as the region shows signs of recovery and property and stock prices are soaring in many parts of Asia. Why should this sharp Asian turnaround be greeted with skepticism? Higher asset prices mean households feel wealthier and better able to spend, which could further fuel the region’s nascent rebound. But just as easily, Asia could soon find itself saddled with overheated markets similar to the U.S. housing market.

In short, the world has not changed, it has just moved placed. The incipient bubble is being created by government policy. In response to the global credit crunch of 2008. Policy makers in Asia I slashed interest rates and flooded financial sectors with cash in frantic attempts to keep loans flowing and economies growing. These steps were logical for central bankers striving to reverse a deepening economic crisis. But there is evidence that there is too much easy money around. It’s winding up in stocks and real estate, pushing prices up too far and too fast for the undenying economic fundamentals. Much of the concern is focused on China where government stimulus efforts have been large and effective, Money in China has been especially easy to find. Aggregate new bank lending surged 201% in first half of 2009 from the same period a year earlier, to nearly 51.1 turn on. Exuberance over a quick recovery which was given a boost by China’s surprisingly strong 7.9% GDP growth in the second quarter has buoyed investor sentiment not just for stocks but also for real estate.

Former U.S. Federal Reserve Chairman Alan Greenspan argued that bubbles could only be recognised in hand sight. But investors who have been well schooled in the dangers of bubbles over the past decade are increasingly wary that prices have risen too far and that the slightest bit of negative, economic news could knock markets for a loop. These fears are compounded by the possibility that Asia’s central bankers will begin taking stops to shut off the money. Rumours that Beijing was on the verge of tightening credit led to Shanghai stocks plunging 5%. Yet many economists believe that, there is close to a zero possibility that the Chinese \ government will do anything this year that constitutes tightening. And without a major shift in thinking, the easy-money conditions will stay in place. In a global economy that has produced more dramatic ups and downs than anyone thought possible over the past two years. Asia may be neading for another disheartening plunge.

51. To which of the following has the author attributed the 2008 Asian financial crisis?

(A) Reluctance or Asian governments to taper off the economic stimulus.
(B) Greed of Asian investors causing them to trade 1 stocks of American companies at high prices.
(C) Inflated real estate prices in Asian countries.

(1) None
(2) Only (A)
(3) Only (C)
(4) (A) and (B)
(5) Only (B)

52. What does the author want to convey through the phrase “The world has not changed it has just moved places”?

(1) At present countries are more dependent on Asian economies than on the US economy
(2) Economies have become interlinked on account of globalisation
(3) Asian governments are implementing the same economic reforms as developed countries
(4) All economies are susceptible to recession because of the state of the US economy
(5) None of the above

53. Which of the following can be said about the Chinese government’s efforts to revive the economy?

(1) These were largely unsuccessful as only the housing market improved
(2) The governments only concern was to boost investor confidence in stocks
(3) These efforts were ineffectual as-the economy recovered owing to the US market stabilising
(4) These were appropriate and accomplished the goal of economic revival
(5) They blindly imitated the economic reforms adopted by the US

54. Why do experts predict that Asian policymakers will not withdraw fiscal stimulus?

(A) The US economy is not likely to recover for a long time.
(B) Stock markets are yet to regain their former levels.
(C) Fear of revolt by greedy citizens.
(1) None of these
(2) Only (C)
(3) (A) and (C)
(4) Only (B)
(5) (B) and (C)

55. What do the statistics about loans given by Chinese banks in 2009 indicate?

(1) There was hardly any demand for loans in 2008
(2) The Chinese government has borrowed funds from the US
(3) China will take longer than the US to recover from the economic crisis
(4) The GDP of China was below expectations
(5) None of the above

56. Why has investor confidence in the Chinese stock market been restored?

(A) Existing property prices which are stable and affordable.
(B) The government has decided to tighten credit.
(C) Healthy growth of the economy indicated by GDP figures.

(1) Only (C)
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) All (A), (B) and (C)
(4) Only (B)
(5) None of these

57. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage?

(1) Illustrating that Asian economies are financially more sound than those of developed countries
(2) Disputing financial theories about how recessions can be predicted and avoided
(3) Warning Asian countries about the dangers of favouring fast growth and profits over sound economic-principles
(4) Extolling China’s incredible growth and urging other countries to emulate it
(5) Advising governments about the changes in policy to strengthen economic fundamentals

58. Why does the author doubt the current resurgence of Asian economics?

(1) Their economies are too heavily reliant on the American economy which is yet to recover
(2) Central banks have slashed interest rates too abruptly which is likely to cause stock markets to crash
(3) With their prevailing economic conditions they are at risk for a financial crisis
(4) Their GDP has not grown significantly during the last financial year
(5) None of the above


Directions (Q.Nos. 59-65) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

Delays of several months in National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS) wage payments and work sites where labourers have lost all hope of being paid at all have become the norm in many states. How are workers who exist on the margins of subsistence supposed to feed their families? Under the scheme, workers must be paid within 15 days, failing which they are entitled, to compensation under the Payment of Wages Act – upto 3000 per aggrieved worker. In reality, compensation is received in only a few isolated instances. It is often argued by officials that the main reason for the delay is the inability of banks and post offices to handle mass payments of NREGS wages. Though there is a grain of truth in this, as a diagnosis it is misleading. The ‘jam’ in the banking system has been the result of the hasty switch to bank payments imposed by the Central Government against the recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee Council which advocated a gradual transition starting with villages relatively close to the nearest bank. However, delays are not confined solely to the banking system. Operational hurdles include implementing agencies taking more than fifteen days to issue payment orders, viewing of work measurement as a cumbersome process resulting in procrastination by the engineering staff and non maintenance of muster rolls and job card etc. But behind these delays lies a deeper and deliberate ‘backlash’ against the NREGS. With bank payments making it much harder to embezzle NREGS funds, the programme is seen as a headache by many government functionaries the workload has remained without the “inducements”. Slowing down wage payments is a convenient way of sabotaging the scheme because workers will desert NREGS worksites.

The common sense solution advocated by the government is to adopt the business correspondent model. Where in bank agents will go to villages to make cash payments and duly record them on handheld, electronic devices. This solution is based on the wrong diagnosis that distance separating villages from banks is the main issue. In order to accelerate payments, clear timelines for every step of the payment process should be incorporated into the system as Programme Officers often have no data on delays and cannot exert due pressure to remedy the situation. Workers are both clueless and powerless with no provision for them to air their grievances and seek redress. In drought affected areas the system of piece rate work can be dispensed with where work measurement is not completed within a week and wages may be paid on the basis of attendance. Buffer funds can be provided to gram panchayats and post offices to avoid bottlenecks in the flow of funds. Partial advances could also be considered provided wage payments are meticulously tracked. But failure to recognise problems and unwillingness to remedy them will remain major threats to the NREGS.
 

59. What impact have late wage payments had on NREGS workers?

(1) They cannot obtain employment till their dues are cleared
(2) They have benefited from the compensation awarded to them
(3) They have been unable to provide for their families
(4) They have been ostracised by their families who depend on them for sustenance
(5) None of the above

60. Which of the following factors has not been responsible for untimely payment of NREGS wages?

(1) Communication delays between agencies implementing the scheme
(2) Improper record keeping
(3) Behind schedule release of payments by banks
(4) Drought conditions prevalent in the country
(5) Delays in work measurement

61. What has the outcome of disbursing NREGS wages through banks been?

(1) Theft of funds by administration officials responsible for the scheme has reduced
(2) Increased work load for local government officials
(3) Protests by workers who have to travel long distances to the nearest bank to claim their wages
(4) Time consuming formalities have to be completed by workers
(5) None of the above

62. According to the passage, which of the following has/have been the consequence (s) of delayed wage payments?

(A) Compensation to victimised workers has amounted to crores.
(B) Banks will no longer be entrusted with remitting wages.
(C) Regulations to ensure punctual wage payments have come into force.

(1) None of these
(2) Only (A)
(3) (A) and (C)
(4) (A) and (B)
(5) (B) and (C)

63. To which of the following has the author attributed the delay in wage payments?

(1) Embezzlement of funds by corrupt bank staff
(2) Lack of monitoring by the Central Employment Guarantee Council
(3) An attempt to derail the NREGS by vested interests
(4) Overworked bank staff deliberately delay payments to protest against extra work
(5) Engineers’ efforts to wreck the NREGS because of low wages

64. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?

(A) Workers are reluctant to open bank accounts as branches are not conveniently located.
(B) Local officials often delay wage payments in drought prone areas to benefit workers.
(C) The Government has not implemented every recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee Council.

(1) Only(B)
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) (B) and (C) (4) (A) and (C)
(5) All of these

65. Which of the following can be considered a deficiency in the NREGS?

(1) Lack of co-ordination among Programme Officers
(2) Local officials are unaware of correct operational procedures
(3) Workers have no means of obtaining redressal for untimely wage payments
(4) Disbursing wages through banks instead of readily accessible post offices
(5) The Central Employment Guarantee Council is reluctant to award compensation to workers
Directions (Q. No. 66-70) Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) (E) and (F) into a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below it.
(A) Moreover salaries in public sector enterprises are not as competitive as those offered by private or foreign corporates.
(B) This trend should be a wake up call for stakeholders to examine why employees are seeking better opportunities with private companies in India and abroad.
(C) Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) have been experiencing severe challenges in attracting motivating and retaining their key staff.
(D) Having identified these as the reasons employees leave PSEs it is important empower stakeholders to find ways to remedy the situation.
(E) One reason is that young employees lured away to private firms are more willing to undertake professional risks.
(F) Employees in specialist roles especially have become increasingly difficult to retain.

66. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

67. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F

68. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

69. Which of the following should be FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

70. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

Directions (Q. Nos. 71 -80) In the following passage, there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against

each five words have been suggested, one of which fills the blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Traditional bank architecture is based on bank branches. These branches ensure the physical (71) of a customer’s savings. A customer may go there to deposit and withdraw money, (72) loans and (73) in other financial transactions. In the past two decades banking architecture has changed the Automated Teller Machine (ATM) has been a big (74) and credit and debit cards have created new financial spaces. (75) the bank branch has remained the bedrock of the banking system after all a person needs a bank account in a branch before he can operate a debit or ATM card. This may be about to change as technocrats now (76) cell phones as the new architecture of virtual banks. This has the potential to make branches (77). Cell phone banking looks especially relevant for India, since it can penetrate the countryside cheaply and (78). The world over cell phones are spreaing at a (79) rate and in India alone new cell phone connection are growing at the rate of six million a month a rate of customer (80) that no bank can dream of.

 

71.

 (1) knowledge
(2) security
(3) presence
(4) confidentiality
(5) guarantee

72.

(1) negotiate
(2) advance
(3) credit
(4) disburse
(5) sanction

73.

 (1) pursue
(2) interact
(3) operate
(4) enable
(5) engage

74.

(1) drawback
(2) hurdle
(3) consequence
(4) luxury
(5) innovation

75.

 (1) Despite
(2) Although
(3) Even (4) Yet
(5) Until

76.

(1) view
(2) realise
(3) display
(4) engineer
(5) assess

77.

 (1) essential (2) obsolete
(3) extant (4) retreat
(5) expired

78.

 (1) moderately
(2) occasionally
(3) compulsorily
(4) indiscriminately
(5) effectively

79.

(1) phenomenal
(2) gradual
(3) proportionate
(4) competitive
(5) projected

80.

(1) discount
(2) base
(3) expansion
(4) satisfaction
(5) relationship

Directions (Q. Nos. 81-85) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
 

81. In an effort to provide for higher education to all, most of the universities have been providing education without adequate infrastructure, thus churning out graduates every year.

(1) chances, fresh
(2) platform, capable
(3) opportunities, unemployable
(4) prospects, eligible
(5) policy, incompetent

82. The move to allow dumping of mercury an outcry from residents of the area who that high levels of mercury will affect their health and destroy ecologically sensitive forest area.

(1) resulted, insist
(2) provoked, fear
(3) incited, determined
(4) activated, accept
(5) angered, believe

83. Even as the elsewhere in the world are struggling to come out of recession, Indian consumers are splurging on consumer goods and to this growth, companies are investing heavily in various sectors.

(1) economies, meet
(2) countries, inhibit
(3) governments, measure
(4) nations, inflict
(5) companies, counter

84. Drawing attention to the pitfalls of solely on Uranium as a fuel for nuclear reactors, Indian scientists warned that Uranium will not last for long and thus research on Thorium as its must be revived.

(1) using, substitute
(2) believing, replacement
(3) depending, reserve
(4) reckoning, option
(5) relying, alternative

85. ............... has been taken against some wholesale drug dealers for dealing in surgical items without a valid license and maintaining a stock of drugs.

(1) Note, overwhelming
(2) Step, impressive
(3) Execution, outdated
(4) Action, expired
(5) Lawsuit, invalid

Directions (Q. Nos. 86-90) Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence? If none of the sentences is appropriate, mark (5) i.e./None of the above’ as the answer.

86. Overlooking the fact that water scarcity intensifies during summer, ...............

(1) the government issued guidelines to all builders to limit their consumption to acceptable limits
(2) provision for rainwater harvesting has been made to aid irrigation in drought prone area
(3) the water table did not improve even after receiving normal monsoon in the current year
(4) many residential areas continue to use swimming pools, wasting large quantities water
(5) None of the above

87. Refuting the rationale behind frequent agitations for formation of separate states, a recent report ..................

(1) proved that such agitations result in loss of governmental property
(2) indicated that the formation of small states does not necessarily improve the economy
(3) suggested that only large scale agitations have been effective in bringing out desired change in the past
(4) recommended dividing large states into smaller ones to improve governance
(5) None of the above

88. Achieving equality for women is not only a laudable goal, ..................

(1) political reforms are also neglected preventing women from entering legislatures and positions of power
(2) the problem is also deep rooted in the society and supported by it
(3) their empowerment is purposefully hampered by people with vested interests in all sections of the society
(4) it is also equally difficult to achieve and maintain for a long term
(5) None of the above

89. He has lost most of his life’s earning in the stock market but ...................

(1) he still seems to be leading his life luxuriously and extravagantly
(2) ha could not save enough to repay his enormous debts
(3) stock market is not a safe option to invest money unless done with caution
(4) experts have been suggesting to avoid investments in stock market because of its unpredictable nature
(5) None of the above

90. ............... or else they would not keep electing him year after year.

(1) The party leader gave a strong message to the mayor for improving his political style
(2) Owing to numerous scandals against the mayor, he was told to resign from the post immediately
(3) The mayor threatened the residents against filing a complaint against him
(4) The residents must really be impressed with the political style of their mayor
(5) None of the above

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013 "Reasoning"

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2013

Subject:  Reasoning



Directions (Q.No. 1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

An organization wants to recruit system analysts. The following conditions apply.

The candidate must

(i) be an engineering graduate in computer/IT. with at least 60% marks.
(ii) have working experience in the field of computer at least for 2 yr after acquiring the requisite qualification,
(iii) have completed minimum 25 yr and maximum 30 yr of age As on 1.12.2013.
(iv) be willing to sign a bond for Rs 50000.
(v) have secured minimum 55% marks in selection test.

However, if a candidate fulfils all other conditions Except

(a) at (i) above, but is an Electronics Engineer with 65% or more marks the case is to be referred to the General Manager (GM)-IT.
(b) at (iv) above, but has an experience of atleast 5 yr as a Software Manager, the case is to be referred to the VP.

In each question below, detailed information of candidate is given. You have to carefully study the information provided in each case and take one of the following courses of actions based on the information and the conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.12.2013. You have to indicate your decision by marking answers to each question as follows

Give Answer

(1) If the case is to be referred to VP
(2) If the case is to be referred to GM
(3) If the data provided is not sufficient to take a decision
(4) If the candidate is to be selected
(5) If the candidate is not to be selected

1. Ms. Suneeta is an IT Engineer with 60% marks at graduation as well as in selection test. She is working as a Software Engineer for last 3 yr after completing engineering degree and has completed 27 yr of age. She is willing to sign the bond of Rs 50000.

2. Rakesh Rao is a Computer Engineer Graduate and thereafter is working as a Software Manager for last 6 yr. He has secured 72% marks at graduation and 67% marks in selection test. His date of birth is 5th December, 1984. He is not willing to sign the bond for Rs50000.

3. Ramkumar is an Engineering graduate in computers with 78% marks passed out in 2007 at the age of 23 yr. Since, then he is working as a Software Manager in an engineering firm. He doesn’t want to sign the bond for Rs 50000. He has cleared the selection test with 72% marks.

4. Nishant is an Electronics Engineer passed out in June, 2010 at the age of 22 yr. Since, then he is working as a Programmer in a software company. He has passed the selection test with 66% marks and is willing to sign the bond.

5. Kalyani is an Engineer with 72% marks in Telecommunication. She has just completed 27 yr of age. She has cleared the selection test with 59% marks. She is willing to sign the bond.

Direction (Q.No. 6) Analyse the following passage and answer the question.


Some words are highly inflammable. Fusion is one of them. You can get two sets of people into a war mode by just uttering the words ‘fusion music’. One set will breathe fire and say it violates the purity of music the other set will tell you earnestly that it opens up the borders of music.

6. From the purists perspective, the ‘war’ between the two set of people can best be

(1) categorized as an ideological conflict between two ideas
(2) termed as a conflict between generations the younger versus the older generation
(3) an attempt to preserve the core principles
(4) seen as an attempt of people at the margin to occupy centre stage
(5) seen as preserving the social identity of purists
 

7. Unlike other retail outlets, where items are purchased in any number of units the customer wants, in super-markets items are grouped in bulk packages. This bulk buying offers saving to the customer. The option to buy at wholesale prices by buying in bulk makes super-market a “practical choice for budget-conscious consumers.

Which of the following assumption may be drived from the above information.
 

(1) Super-markets often have greater buying power and lower overhead costs, so they can offer a greater variety of products than regular retail outlets
(2) Super-markets are often more conveniently located and have better parking facilities
(3) The emergence of super-markets has caused many small retail stores to close down and thus eliminate competitions
(4) It is economically wise to buy single items since bulk packages seldom offer significant savings
(5) The financial savings from purchasing bulk packages may outweigh the inconvenience of being unable to purchase in any number of units that suits the customers’ need

8. Nations do not complete with each other in the way corporations do.

Which of the following most favours the weakness of the argument ?

(1) Trade deficit is a sign of national strength, profits are a sign of corporate strength
(2) Increase in human development index improves national standing, increase in market share improves corporate standing
(3) Climate change negotiations lead to global improvement; CSR initiatives lead to image improvement
(4) Nations go to war to capture territory, corporates contend against each other to capture market share
(5) None of the above

9. Civilization has taught us to be friendlier towards one another
Which of the following most favours the strengthens of the argument?

(1) Cats are loyal to their children, whereas men are loyal to their communities
(2) Elephants move in a herd, whereas men live in nuclear families
(3) Lions protect their own territories, whereas men capture other men’s territories
(4) Nilgai and Cheetal stay together, whereas men of one race dominate another
(5) None of the above

10. The mushrooming of business schools in the country is a cause for shortage of faculty with Ph.D qualification. In addition, the higher pay and generous fringe benefits given by industry has encouraged qualified people to not seek academic positions.
Which of the following statements, if true, would tend to STRENGTHEN the argument?

(1) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is more than the average salary for faculty positions in some business schools in Ahmedabad by around 30%
(2) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is less than the average salary for faculty positions in a top business school in Ahmedabad by around 30%
(3) The average salary for recent Ph.D graduates in the industry is 20% higher than that in academics
(4) The rate of growth of salaries for the industry positions has been higher than the rate of growth of salaries for academic positions for the past three years
(5) None of the above


Directions (Q. Nos 11 -13) Study the information given below carefully to answer the following questions.
In a certain code language the following lines written as

 

‘lop eop aop fop’ means ‘Traders are above laws’
‘fop cop bop gop’ means ‘Developers were above profitable’
‘aop bop uop qop’ means ‘Developers stopped following traders’
‘cop jop eop uop’ means ‘Following maps were laws’

11. ‘Developers are following laws’ would be correctly written as

(1) ‘bop cop uop eop’
(2) ‘lop bop eop uop’
(3) ‘oup cop lop aop’
(4) ‘gop cop uop qop’
(5) None of these

12. ‘qop gop cop eop’ would correctly mean

(1) profitable laws were stopped
(2) developers stopped following laws
(3) traders were above profitable
(4) were laws profitable traders
(5) None of the above

13. ‘aop qop bop’ would correctly mean

(1) following were above
(2) traders stopped developers
(3) developers are laws
(4) traders above stopped
(5) laws are stopped

Directions (Q.Nos. 14-18) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements- to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

14. Statements All petals are flowers. Some flowers are buds. Some buds are leaves. All leaves are plants.

Conclusions

I. Some petals are not buds.
II. Some flowers are plants.
III. No flower is plant.

(1) Only I follows
(2) Either II or III follows
(3) I and II follow
(4) Only III follows
(5) None of the above

15. Statements Some pens are keys. Some keys are locks. All locks are cards. No card is paper.

Conclusions

I. No lock is paper.
II. Some cards are keys.
III. Some keys are not paper.

(1) I and II follow
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) All follow
(5) None follows

16. Statements Some pearls are gems. All gems are diamonds. No diamond is stone. Some stones are corals.

Conclusions

I. Some stones are pearls.
II. Some corals being diamond is a possibility.
III. No stone is pearl.

(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Either I or III follows
(4) I and II follow
(5) None of these

17. Statements Some apartments are flats. Some flats are buildings. All buildings are bungalows. All bungalows are gardens.

Conclusions

I. All apartments being building is a possibility
II. All bungalows are not buildings.
III. No flat is garden.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Either I or III follows
(4) II and III follow
(5) Only II follows
 

18.  Statements All chairs are tables. All tables are bottles. Some bottles are jars. No jar is bucket.

Conclusions

 I. Some tables being jar is a possibility.
II. Some bottles are chairs.
III. Some bottles are not bucket.
(1) Only I follows (2) I and II follow
(3) All follow (4) Only II follows
(5) None of these

19. A person starts from point P in East and moves 12 m to point Q. Then, he moves right 8 m to point R. Again he moves right for 6m to point S. Then, he moves 6 m in the North to point T. Finally from there he goes to left for 6 m to point U. Which of three point he would form a triangle whose all the angles are less than 90°.

(1) PTQ
(2) QTR
(3) UTS
(4) TSR
(5) SQR


Directions (Q.Nos. 20-25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing either the centre or outside. Each one of them belongs to a different department viz. Finance, Marketing Sales, HR, Corporate Finance, Investment Banking and Operations but not necessarily in the same order.
C sits third to the right of G.C faces the centre. Only one person sits between C and the person working in the HR department immediate neighbours of C face outside. Only one person sits between F and D. Both F and D face the centre. D does not work in the HR department. A works in Investment Banking Department. A faces the centre. Two people sit between the persons who work in Investment Banking and Marketing Departments. The person who works in Corporate Finance sits to the immediate left of E. C faces same direction as E. The person who works in corporate finance sits to the immediate left of the person who works for Operations department.

 

20. For which of the following departments does B work?

(1) Finance
(2) Marketing
(3) HR
(4) Corporate Finance
(5) Operations

21. What is position of B with respect to the person who works for Sales department ?

(1) Immediate right
(2) Third to the left
(3) Second to the right
(4) Second to the left
(5) Fourth to the right

22. Who sits to the immediate right of E ?

(1) The person who works for Marketing department
(2) C
(3) B
(4) The person who works for HR department
(5) A

23. Who amongst the following sits exactly between C and the person who works for HR department?

(1) B
(2) The person who works for Marketing department
(3) The person who works for Operations department
(4) D
(5) G

24. Who amongst the following sit between the persons who work for Marketing and Investment banking departments when counted for the left hand side of the person working for Marketing department?

(1) F and G
(2) E and C
(3) C and B
(4) F and D
(5) B and D

25. How many people sit between the person who works for Operations department and A, when counted from the right hand side of A?

(l) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four
 

 

Directions (Q.Nos. 26-30) In these questions the symbols @, #, $, % and « are used with different meanings as follow
‘A @ B ‘ means ‘A is not smaller then B’.
‘A # B ‘ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’. ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B’.
‘A % B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’.
‘A « B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’.
In each questions, four statements showing relationships have been given, which are followed by three conclusions 1,11 and III. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion (s) is/are definitely true?

 

26. Statements V $ Y, Y @ Z, Z % X, X # T

Conclusions

I. T#Z
II. X#Y
III. z«y

(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) II and III follow
(4) I and III follow
(5) Only III follows

27. Statements

R @ J, J % F, F « E, E % M
Conclusions I. M # J
II. F % M
III. M « R
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) I and II follow
(5) All follow

28. Statements

H # R R @ L, L « W, W % F
Conclusions I. H # J
II. F # L
III. H $ F
(1) Only I follows
(2) I and II follow
(3) II and III follow
(4) Either I or II follows
(5) All follow

29. Statements

M # K, M $ F, F % Q, Q « H

Conclusions

 I. H # K
II. Q # K
III. Q @ M
(1) I and II follow
(2) Either I or II follows
(3) All follow
(4) II and III follow
(5) None of the above

30. Statements

 D « Q, Q $ L, L # T, T % H

Conclusions

I. D « L
II. L @ H
III. H # L
(1) Only I follows
(2) I and II follow
(3) Either II or III follows
(4) All follow
(5) None of these

31. In a code language ‘PROVIDE’ is written as ‘MULYFGB’, then what will be code for ‘BECAUSE’ in same languages

(1) YZHDRVB
(2) ZHYDRVB
(3) YHZDRVB
(4) ZYDHVBR
(5) None of these

Directions (Q.Nos. 32-36) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer

(1) If the data is Statements I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(2) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(3) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
(4) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
(5) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
 

32. How’ many children are there in the group if no two children have same weight?

Statements

I. Sahil is fifth from the top in order of weight if all the children in the group were arranged in descending order.
II. Ramesh, who in heavier than 14 children in the group is immediately next to Sahil in weight.
 

33. What is the code for ‘healthy’ in the code language?

Statements

I. In the code language ‘eat healthy food’ is written as ‘ka ma re’.
II. In code language ‘food for healthy people’ is written as ‘ta ma jo re’.

34.

 How many brothers does ‘H’ have ?

Statements

I. ‘H’ is sister of ‘K’ who is son of T
II. T is mother of ‘K’ who is brother of ‘H’.

35.

 Who among J,T,W,R and Q reached the office first ?

Statements

 I. J reached before Q, R and T but after W.
II. Q reached before R but after W.
 

36.

 Village f is in which direction with respect to village ‘K’ ?

Statements

I. Village ‘J’ is to the East of village ‘F’ and to the North of village ‘K’.
II. Village ‘R’, which is to the South of village ‘F’ is to the West of village ‘K’.
 

37. The increase in the number of newspaper articles exposed as fabrications serves to bolster the contention that publishers are more interested in boosting circulation than in printing the truth, Even’ minor publications have staff to check such obvious fraud.

Which of the following may be the assumption of the given argument?

(1) Newspaper stories exposed as fabrication are a recent phenomenon
(2) Everything a newspaper print must be factually verifiable
(3) Fact checking is more comprehensive for minor publications that for major ones
(4) The publishers of newspapers are the people who decide what to print in their newspapers
(5) None of the above

38. The rate of violent crime in this state is upto 30% from last year. The fault lies entirely in our system of justice. Recently our judges’ sentences have been so lenient that criminals can now do almost anything without fear of a long prison term.
The argument above would be weakened if it were true that

(1) 85% of the other States in the nation have lower crime rates than does this state
(2) white-collar crime in this state has also increased by over 25% in the last year
(3) 35% of the police in this state have been laid off in the last year due to budget cuts
(4) polls show that 65% of the population in this state opposes capital punishment
(5) None of the above
 

39.

 All German philosophers, except for Marx, are idealists. From which of the following can the statement above be most properly inferred?
(1) Except for Marx, if someone is an idealist, then he or she is a philosopher, as long as he German
(2) Marx is the only non-German philosopher who is an idealist
(3) If a German is an idealist, then he or she is a philosopher, as long as he or she is not Marx
(4) Aside from the philosopher Marx, If someone is a German, then he or she is an idealist
(5) None of the above

40.

During the SARS days, about 23,500 doctors who had treated SARS sufferers died and about 23,670 doctors who had not engaged in treatment for SARS sufferers died. On the basis of those figures, it can be concluded that it was not much more dangerous to participate in SARS treatment during the SARS day than it was not to participate in SARS treatment.

Which of the following would reveal most clearly the absurdity of the conclusion drawn above?

(1) Counting deaths among doctors who had participated in SARS treatment in addition to deaths among doctors who had not participated is SARS treatment
(2) Expressing the difference between the numbers of deaths among doctors who had treated SARS sufferers and doctors who had not treated SARS suffers as a percentage of the total number of deaths
(3) Separating deaths caused by accidents during the treatment to SARS suffers from deaths caused by infect of SARS suffers
(4) Comparing death rates per thousand members of each group rather than comparing total numbers of deaths
(5) None of the above

Directions (Q.Nos. 41-44) Read the following passage carefully and answer the Question given below it.

Six friends Abhishek, Deepak, Mridul, Pritam, Ranjan and Salil married within a year in the months of February, April, July, September, November and December and in the cities of Ahmedabad, Bengaluru, Chennai, Delhi, Mumbai and Kolkata, but not necessarily following the above order. The brides names were Geetika, Jasmine, Hema, Brinda, Ipsita and Veena, once again not following any order. The following are some facts about their weddings.
(i) Mridul’s wedding took place in Chennai, however he was not married to Geetika or Veena
(ii) Abhishek’s wedding took place in Ahmedabad and Ranjan’s in Delhi; however neither of them was married to Jasmine or Brinda
(iii) The wedding in Kolkata took place in February
(iv) Hema’s wedding took place in April, but not in Ahmedabad
(v) Geetika and Ipsita got married in February and November and in Chennai and Kolkata but not following the above order
(vi) Pritam visited Bengaluru and Kolkata only after his marriage in December
(vii) Salil was married to Jasmine to September

41. Hema’s husband is

(1) Abhishek
(2) Deepak
(3) Ranjan
(4) Pritam
(5) Mridul

42.

 Deepak’s wedding took place in
(1) Bengaluru
(2) Mumbai
(3) Kolkata
(4) Delhi
(5) Chennai

43.

In Mumbai, the wedding of one of the friends took place in the month of

(1) April
(2) September
(3) November
(4) December
(5) July

44.

 Salil’s wedding was held in

(1) Bengaluru
(2) Chennai
(3) Kolkata
(4) Delhi
(5) Mumbai
 

Directions (Q.Nos. 45-50) Given an input line the machine arranges the words and numbers in steps in a systematic manner as illustrated below.
 

Input 59 dress fine shine 32 66 72 offer
Step I 72 56 dress fine shine 32 66 offer
Step II 72 shine 56 dress fine 32 66 offer
Step III 72 shine 66 56 dress fine 32 offer
Step IV 72 shine 66 offer 56 dress fine 32
Step V 72 shine 66 offer 56 fine dress 32
Step VI 72 shine 66 offer 56 fine 32 dress
STEP VI is the last step and the output in Step VI is the final output.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

45. Step IV of an input is ’62 sound 56 sleep roam present 33 49'. What will be the input definitely ?

(1) Sound 62 sleep 56 roam present 33 49
(2) Sleep sound 62 56 roam present 33 49
(3) 62 Sound sleep 56 roam present 33 49
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of the above

46. Which of the following will be the third step for input ‘jockey firm 36 43 growth chart 22 45 ?

(1) 45 jockey 43 growth firm 36 chart 22
(2) 45 jockey 43 firm growth 36 chart 22
(3) 45 jockey 43 growth 36 firm chart 22
(4) 45 jockey 43 firm 36 growth chart 22
(5) None of the above

47. Step n of an input is ‘53’ window 42 50 door lock key 36'. How many more steps will be required to complete the arrangement?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six
(5) None of these

48. What will be the fifth step of an input whose first step is ’85 journey train 36 54 daily 28 mansion’ ?

(1) 85 train 54 mansion 28 journey daily 36
(2) 85 train 54 mansion journey 36 daily 28
(3) 85 train 54 mansion 36 journey daily 28
(4) There is no such step
(5) None of the above

49. Which step will be the last step for an input whose second step is ‘63’ Sour 18 56 grapes healthy 32 rise’ ?

(1) IV
(2) V
(3) VIII
(4) VII
(5) None of these

50.

 Which word/number will be sixth from right in step fifth whose second step is ’63 Sour 18 56 grapes healthy 32 rise’?

(1) Rise
(2) 56
(3) Sour
(4) 32

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012 "English Language"

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject:  English Language



Directions (Q. 201-215): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
When times are hard, doomsayers are plenty. The problem is that if you listen to them too carefully, you tend to overlook the most obvious signs of change. 2011 was a bad year. Can 2012 be any worse? Doomsday forecasts are the easiest to make these days. So let’s try a contrarian’s forecast instead.

Let’s start with the global economy. We have seen a steady flow of good news from the US. The employment situation seems to be improving rapidly and consumer sentiment, reflected in retail expenditures on discretionary items like electronics and clothes, has picked up. If these trends sustain, the US might post better growth numbers for 2012 than the 1.5-1.8 per cent being forecast currently.

Japan is likely to pull out of a recession in 2012 as post-earthquake reconstruction efforts gather momentum and the fiscal stimulus announced in 2011 begins to pay off’. The consensus estimate for growth in Japan is a respectable 2 per cent for 2012.
The “hard-landing’* scenario for China remains and will remain a myth. Growth might decelerate further from the 9 per cent that it expected to clock in 2011 but is unlikely to drop below-8-8.5 percent in 2012.

Europe is certainly in a spot of trouble. It is perhaps already in recession and for 2012 it is likely to post mildly negative growth. The risk of implosion has dwindled over the last few months - peripheral economies like Greece, Italy and Spain have new governments in place and have made progress towards genuine economic reform.

Even with some of these positive factors in place, we have to accept the fact that global growth in 2012 will be tepid. But there is a flipside to this. Softer growth means lower demand for commodities and this is likely to drive a correction in commodity prices. Lower commodity inflation will enable emerging-market central banks to reverse their monetary stance. China, for instance, has already reversed its stance and has pared its reserve ratio twice. The RBI also seems poised for a reversal in its rate cycle as headline inflation seems well on its way to its target of 7 per cent for March 2012.

That said, oil might be an exception to the general trend in commodities. Rising geopolitical tensions, particularly the continuing face-off between Iran and the US, might lead to a spurt in prices. It might make sense for our oil companies to hedge this risk instead of buying oil in the spot market.

As inflation fears abate and emerging market central banks begin to cut rates, two things could happen. Lower commodity inflation would mean lower interest rates and better credit availability. This could set a floor to growth and slowly reverse the business cycle within these economies. Second, as the fear of untamed, runaway inflation in these economies abates, the global investor’s comfort levels with their markets will increase.

Which of the emerging markets will outperform and who will get left behind? In an environment in which global growth is likely to be weak, economies like India that have a powerful domestic consumption dynamic should lead: those dependent on exports should, prima facie, fall behind. Specifically for India, a fall in the exchange rate could not have come at a better time. It will help Indian exporters gain market share even if global trade remains depressed. More importantly, it could lead to massive import substitution that favours domestic producers.

Let’s now focus on India and start with a caveat. It is important not to confuse a short-run cyclical dip with a permanent de-rating of its long-term structural potential. The arithmetic is simple. Our growth rate can be in the range of 7-10 per cent depending on policy action. Ten per cent if we get everything right, 7 per cent if we get it all wrong. Which policies and reforms are critical to taking us to our 10 per cent potential? In judging this, let’s again be careful. Let’s not go by the laundry list of reforms that Flls like to wave: increase in foreign equity limits in foreign shareholding, greater voting rights for institutional shareholders in banks, FDI in retail, etc. These can have an impact only at the margin. We need not bend over backwards to appease the Flls through these reforms - they will invest in our markets when momentum picks up and will be the first to exit when the momentum flags, reforms or not.

The reforms that we need are the ones that can actually raise our. sustainable long-term growth rate. These have to come in areas like better targeting of subsidies, making projects in infrastructure viable so that they draw capital. raising the productivity of agriculture, improving healthcare and education, bringing the parallel economy under the tax net. implementing fundamental reforms in taxation like GST and the direct tax code and finally easing the myriad rules and regulations that make doing business in India such a nightmare. A number of these things do not require new legislation and can be done through executive order.
 

201. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?

(1) China’s economic growth may decline in the year 2012 as compared to the year 2011.
(2) The European economy is not doing very well.
(3) Greece is on the verge of bringing about economic reforms.
(4) In the year 2012, Japan may post a positive growth and thus pull out of recession.
(5) All are true

202. Which of the following will possibly be a result of softer growth estimated for the year 2012?

(A) Prices ofoil will not increase.
(B) Credit availability would be lesser.
(C) Commodity inflation would be lesser.
(1) Only (B) (2) Only (A) and (B)
(3) Only (A) and (C)
(4) Only (C)
(5) All (A),(B) and (C)

203. Which of the following can be said about the present status of the US economy?

(1) There is not much improvement in the economic scenario of the country from the year 2011.
(2) The growth in the economy of the country, in the year 2012, would definitely be lesser than 1.8 percent.
(3) The expenditure on clothes and electronic commodities, by consumers, is lesser than that in the year 2011.
(4) There is a chance that in 2012 the economy would do better than what has been forecast.
(5) The pace of change in the employment scenario of the country is very slow.

204. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage?

(1) The Economic Disorder
(2) Indian Economy Versus The European Economy
(3) Global Trade
(4) The Current Economic Scenario
(5) Characteristics of The Indian Economy

205. According to the author, which of the following would characterise Indian growth scenario in 2012?

(A) Domestic producers will take a hit because of depressed global trade scenario.
(B) On account of its high domestic consumption, India will lead.
(C) Indian exporters will have a hard time in gaining market share.
(1) Only (B) (2) Only (A) and (B)
(3) Only (B) and(C) (4) Only (A)
(5) All (A), (B) and (C)

206. Why does the author not recommend taking up the reforms suggested by Flls?

(1) These will bring about only minor growth.
(2) The reforms suggested will have no effect on the economy of our country, but will benefit the Flls significantly.
(3) The previous such recommendations had backfired.
(4) These reforms will be the sole reason for our country’s economic downfall.
(5) The reforms suggested by them are not to be trusted as they will not bring about any positive growth in India.

207. Which of the following is TRUE as per the scenario presented in the passage?

(1) The highest growth rate that India can expect is 7 per cent.
(2) The fall in the exchange rate will prove beneficial to India.
(3) Increased FDI in retail as suggested by Flls would benefit India tremendously.
(4) The reforms suggested by the author require new legislations in India.
(5) None is true

208. According to the author, which of the following reform/s is/are needed to ensure long-term growth in India?

(A) Improving healthcare and educational facilities
(B) Bringing about reforms in taxation
(C) Improving agricultural productivity
(1) Only (B)
(2) Only (A) and(B)
(3) Only (B) and (C)
(4) Only (A)
(5) All (A), (B)and(C)

Directions (Q. 209-212): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

209. DRAW

(1) entice
(2) push
(3) decoy
(4) attract
(5) persuade

210. CLOCK

(1) watch
(2) achieve
(3) time
(4) second
(5) regulate

211. ABATE

(1) rise
(2) gear
(3) hurl
(4) lessen
(5) retreat

212. EMERGING

(1) raising
(2) developing
(3) noticeable
(4) conspicuous
(5) uproaring


Directions (Q. 213-215): Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

213. MYRIAD

(1) trivial
(2) difficult
(3) few
(4) effortless
(5) countless

214. TEPID

(1) moderate
(2) high
(3) warm
(4) irregular
(5) little

215. MYTH

(1) reality
(2) belief
(3) contrast
(4) idealism
(5) falsehood


Directions (Q. 216-220): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
 

(A) If China is the world’s factory. India has become the world’s outsourcing centre - keeping in line with this image.

(B) But India’s future depends crucially on its ability to compete fully in the Creative Economy - not just in tech and software, but across design and entrepreneurship; arts, culture and entertainment; and the knowledge-based professions of medicine, finance and law.

(C) While its creative assets outstrip those of other emerging competitors, India must address several challenges to increase its international competitiveness as the world is in the midst of a sweeping transformation.

(D) This transformation is evident in the fact that the world is moving from an industrial economy to a Creative Economy that generates wealth by harnessing intellectual labour, intangible goods and human creative capabilities.

(E) Its software industry is the world’s second-largest, its tech outsourcing accounts for more than half of the $300 billion global industry, according to a technology expert.

(F) If the meeting of world leaders at Davos is any indication, India is rapidly becoming an economic ‘rock star’.

216. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

217. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

218. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) F
(5) E

219. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) F
(2) B
(3) C
(4) A
(5) E

220. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F

Directions (Q. 221-225): The following questions consist of a single sentence with one blank only. You are given six words denoted by A, B, C, D. E & F as answer choices and from the six choices you have to pick two correct answers, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete.

221. _______ before the clock struck 8 on Saturday night, India Gate was swamped with people wearing black T- shirts and holding candles.

(A) Minutes (B) Time
(C) Later (D) Quickly
(E) Since (F) Seconds

(1) (B) and (E)
(2) (A) and (C)
(3) (A) and (F)
(4) (B) and (D)
(5) (C) and (E)

222. The state should take steps to_______the process of teachers appointments as the Centre has already sanctioned six lakh posts.

(A) fasten (B) move
(C) hasten (D) spced
(E) early (F) quicken


(1) (D) and (F)
(2) (A) and (C)
(3) (F) and (B)
(4) (D) and (E)
(5) (B) and (D)

223. A senior citizen’s son_______threatened her every day and physically harmed her, forcing her to transfer her property to him.

(A) superficially (B) mistakenly
(C) allegedly (D) miserably
(E) doubtfully (F) purportedly
 

(1) (C) and (F)
(2) (A) and (E)
(3) (C) and (E)
(4) (D) and (F)
(5) (A) and (D)

224. Medical teachers said that the management had continued to remain ............. to their cause leading to the stretching of their strike.

(A) unmoved
(B) lethargic
(C) unconcerned
(D) apathetic
(E) indifferent
(F) bored

(1) (B) and (C)
(2) (C) and (F)
(3) (A) and (E)
(4) (A) and (D)
(5) (D) and (E)

225. The parents had approached the high court to _______ the government order after their children, who passed UKG, were denied admission by a school.

(A) void (B) quash
(C) annul (D) stay
(E) lift (F) post

(1) (A) and (D)
(2) (B) and (C)
(3) (C) and (E)
(4) (E) and (F)
(5) (C) and (D)
 

Directions (Q. 226-235): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
 

226.

(1) The Government has asked individuals /
(2) with income of over ` 10 lakhs to /
(3) electronic file tax returns for the year 2011 -12,/
(4) something which was optional till last year. /
(5) No error

227.

(1) The power tariff had already /
(2) been increased twice in /
(3) the last 15 months and the Electricity Board had also /
(4)levied add itionafmonthly charges to consumers./
(5) No error

228.

(1) Despite of curfew /
(2) in some areas, minor /
(3) communal incidents were reported /
(4) from different areas of the walled city. /
(5) No error

229.

(1) This comes /
(2) at a rime /
(3) when fund allocation /
(4) is been doubled. /
(5) No error

230.

(1) As the prison will get /
(2)an official telephone facility soon the prisoners /
(3) won’t have to make calls in discreet manner /
(4)through smuggled mobile phones. /
(5) No error

231.

(1) The area was plunged into /
(2) darkness mid a wave of/
(3) cheering and shouting /
(4) slogans like ‘Save The Earth’. /
(5) No error.

232.

(1) The poll contestants approached / the commission/
(2) complaining that the hoardings /
(3) violated the code of conduct /
(4) and influenced public perception. /
(5) No error

233.

(1) The country has /
(2) adequate laws but problems / arise /
(3)when these are not /
(4) implemented in letter and spirit. /
(5) No error

234.

(1) The Management feels that /
(2) the employees of the organisation are /
 (3) non-productive, and do not want /
(4) to work hard. /
(5) No error

235.

(1) As far the issue of land encroachment /
(2) in villages is concerned, people will /
(3) have to make a start from their villages by /
(4) sensitising and educating the villagers about this issue. /
(5) No error
 

Directions (Q. 236-240): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the word/ phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.
 

236. US secretary of state made it clear that time running out for diplomacy over Iran’s nuclear programme and said that talks aimed at preventing Tehran from acquiring a nuclear weapon would resume in April.

(1) runs out
(2) was running out
(3) ran out
(4) run
(5) No correction required

237. While the war of the generals rage on, somewhere in small-town India, wonderful things are happening, quietly and minus fanfare.

(1) rage
(2) raging
(3) rages on
(4) raged on
(5) No correction required

238. According to WWF, the small island nation of Samoa was the first in switch off its lights for Earth Hour.

(1) first to switch of
(2) the first to switch off
(3) the first of switch off
(4) first in switch of
(5) No correction required

239. The campaign is significant because not just the youths are directly appealing to the world but because their efforts challenge the chimera of normalcy in the area.

(1) not just because
(2) just not because
(3) not just
(4) because just
(5) No correction required

240. The doctor’s association has threatened to go on indefinite strike support of their teachers.

(1) on supporting to
(2) to supporting
(3) for support
(4) in support of
(5) No correction required


Directions (Q. 241-250): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.

Greenhouse gases are only (241) of the story when it comes to global warming. Changesto one part of the climate system can (242) additional changes to the way the planet absorbs or reflects energy. These secondary changes are (243) climate feedbacks, and they could more than double the amount of warming caused by carbon dioxide alone. The primary feedbacks are (244) to snow and ice, water vapour, clouds, and the carbon cycle.

Perhaps the most well (245) feedback comes from melting snow and ice in the Northern Hemisphere. Warming temperatures are already (246) a growing percentage of Arctic-sea ice, exposing dark ocean water during the (247) sunlight of summer. Snow cover on land is also (248) in many areas. In the (249) of snow and ice, these areas go from having bright, sunlight-reflecting surfaces that cool the planet to having dark, sunlight-absorbing surfaces that (250) more energy into the Earth system and cause more warming.

241.

(1) whole
(2) part
(3) material
(4) issue
(5) most

242.

(1) raise
(2) brings
(3) refer
(4) stop
(5) cause

243.

(1) sensed
(2) called
(3) nothing
(4) but
(5) term

244.

(1) due
(2) results
(3) reason
(4) those
(5) because

245.

(1) done
(2) known
(3) ruled
(4) bestowed
(5) said

246.

(1) mastering
(2) sending
(3) melting
(4) calming
(5) increasing

247.

(1) make-shift
(2) ceasing
(3) troubled
(4) perpetual
(5) absent

248.

(1) dwindling
(2) manufactured
(3) descending
(4) generating
(5) supplied

249.

(1) progress
(2) reduced
(3) existence
(4) midst
(5) absence

250.

(1) repel
(2) waft
(3) monitor
(4) bring (5) access

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012 "Computer Knowledge"

 

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: Computer Knowledge


151. _________ allows users to upload files to an online site so they can be viewed and edited from another location.

(1) General-purpose applications
(2) Microsoft outlook
(3) Web-hosted technology
(4) Office Live
(5) None of these

152. What feature adjusts the top and bottom margins so that the text is centered vertically on the printed page?

(1) Vertical justifying
(2) Vertical adjusting
(3) Dual centering
(4) Horizontal centering
(5) Vertical centering

153. Which of these is not a means of personal communication on the Internet?

(1) chat
(2) instant messaging
(3) instanotes
(4) electronic mail
(5) None of these

154. What is the overall term for creating, editing, formatting, storing, retrieving, and printing a text document?

(1) Word processing
(2) Spreadsheet design
(3) Web design
(4) Database management
(5) Presentation generation

155. Fourth-generation mobile technology provides enhanced capabilities allowing the transfer of both data, including full-motion video, high-speed Internet access, and videoconferencing.

(1) video data and information
(2) voice and non-voice
(3) music and video
(4) video and audio
(5) None of these

156. _________ is a form of denial of service attack in which a hostile client repeatedly  attack in which a hostile client repeatedly sends SYN packets to every port on the server, using fake IP addresses.

(1) Cybergaming crime
(2) Memory shaving
(3) Syn flooding
(4) Software piracy
(5) None of these

157. Which of these is a point-and-draw device?

(1) mouse
(2) scanner
(3) printer
(4) CD-ROM
(5) keyboard

158. The letter and number of the intersecting column and row is the

(1) cell location
(2) cell position
(3) cell address
(4) cell coordinates
(5) cell contents

159. A set of rules for telling the computer what operations to perform is called a

(1) procedural language
(2) structures
(3) natural language
(4) command language
(5) programming language

160. A detailed written description of the programming cycle and the program, along with the test results and a printout of the program is called

(1) documentation
(2) output
(3) reporting
(4) spec sheets
(5) directory

161. Forms that are used to organise business data into rows and columns are called

(1) transaction sheets
(2) registers
(3) business forms
(4) sheet-spreads
(5) spreadsheets

162. In PowerPoint, the Header & Footer button can be found on the Insert tab in what group?

(1) Illustrations group
(2) Object group
(3) Text group
(4) Tables group (5) None of these

163. A(n)_____ is a set of programs designed to manage the resources of a computer, including starting the computer, managing programs, managing memory, and coordin-ating tasks between input and output devices.

(1) application suite
(2) compiler
(3) input/output system
(4) interface
(5) operating system (OS)

164. A typical slide in a slide presentation would not include

(1) photo images, charts and graphs
(2) graphs and clip art
(3) clip art and audio clips
(4) full-motion video
(5) content templates

165. The PC productivity tool that manipulates data organised in rows and columns is called a(n)

(1) spreadsheet
(2) word processing document
(3) presentation mechanism
(4) database record manager
(5) EDI creator

166. In the absence of parentheses, the order of operation is

(1) exponentiation, addition or subtraction, multiplication or division
(2) addition or subtraction, multiplication or division, exponentiation
(3) multiplication or division, exponen-tiation, addition or subtraction
(4) exponentiation, multiplication or divi-sion, addition or subtraction
(5) addition or subtraction, exponentiation, multiplication or division

167. To find the Paste Special option, you use the Clipboard group on the _______ tab of PowerPoint.

(1) design
(2) slide Show
(3) page layout
(4) insert
(5) home

168. A(n) program is one that is ready to run and does not need to be altered in any way.

(1) interpreter
(2) high-level
(3) compiler
(4) COBOL
(5) executable

169. Usually downloaded into folders that hold temporary Internet files,_________ are written to your computer’s hard disk by some of the Web sites you visit.

(1) anonymous files
(2) behaviour files
(3) banner ads
(4) large files
(5) cookies

170. What is the easiest way to change the phrase “revenues, profits, gross margin,” to read “revenues, profits, and gross margin”?

(1) Use the insert mode, position the cursor before the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(2) Use the insert mode, position the cursor after the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(3) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor before the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(4) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor after the g in gross, then type the word and followed by a space
(5) None of these

171. A program, either talk or music, that is made available in digital format for automatic download over the Internet is called a

(1) wiki
(2) broadcast
(3) vodcast
(4) bIog
(5) podcast

172. Which PowerPoint view displays each slide of the presentation as a thumbnail and is useful for rearranging slides?

(1) Slide sorter
(2) Slide show
(3) Slide master
(4) Notes page
(5) Slide design

173. Different components on the motherboard of a PC unit are linked together by sets of parallel electrical conducting lines. What are these lines called?

(1) Conductors
(2) Buses
(3) Connectors
(4) Consecutives
(5) None of these

174. What is the name given to those applications that combine text, sound, graphics, motion video, and/or animation?

(1) motionware
(2) anigraphics
(3) videoscapes
(4) multimedia
(5) maxomedia

175. A USB communication device that supports data encryption for secure wireless commu-nication for notebook users is called a

(1) USB wireless network adapter
(2) wireless switch
(3) wireless hub
(4) router
(5) None of these

176. A(n) language reflects the way people think mathematically.

(1) cross-platform programming
(2) 3GL business programming
(3) event-driven programming
(4) functional
(5) None of these

177. When entering text within a document, the Enter key is normally pressed at the end of every

(1) line
(2) sentence
(3) paragraph
(4) word
(5) file

178. When a real-time telephone call between people is made over the Internet using computers, it is called

(1) a chat session
(2) an e-mail
(3) an instant message
(4) internet telephony
(5) None of these

179. Which of the following is the first step in sizing a window?

(1) Point to the title bar
(2) Pull down the View menu to display the toolbar
(3) Point to any corner or border
(4) Pull down the View menu and change to large icons
(5) None of these

180. Which of the following software could assist someone who cannot use their hands for computer input?

(1) Videoconferencing
(2) Speech recognition
(3) Audio digitizer
(4) Synthesizer
(5) None of these

181. ......... a document means the file is transferred from another computer to your computer.

(1) Uploading
(2) Really Simple Syndication (RSS)
(3) Accessing
(4) Downloading
(5) Upgrading

182. Which computer memory is used for storing programs and data currently being processed by the CPU?

(1) Mass memory
(2) Internal memory
(3) Non-volatile memory
(4) PROM
(5) None of these

183. Computers that control processes accept data in a continuous

(1) data traffic pattern
(2) data highway
(3) infinite loop
(4) feedback loop
(5) slot

184. What refers to a set of characters of a particular design?

(1) Keyface
(2) Formation
(3) Calligraph
(4) Stencil
(5) Typeface

185. ........ is used by public and private enterprises to publish and share financial information with each other and industry analysts across all computer platforms and the Internet.

(1) Extensible Markup Language (XML)
(2) Extensible Business Reporting Language (XBRL)
(3) Enterprise Application Integration (EAI)
(4) Sales Force Automation (SKA) software
(5) None of these

186. Which part of the computer is used for calculating and comparing?

(1) ALU
(2) Control unit
(3) Disk unit
(4) Modem
(5) None of these

187. The method of Internet access that requires a phone line, but offers faster access speeds than dial-up is the connection.

(1) cable access
(2) satellite access
(3) fibre-optic service
(4) digital subscriber line (DSL)
(5) modem

188. ............. software creates a minor image of the entire hard disk, including the operating system, applications, files, and data.

(1) Operating system
(2) Backup software
(3) Utility programs
(4) Driver imaging
(5) None of these

189. What is a URL?

(1) A computer software program
(2) A type of programming object
(3) The address of a document or “page” on the World Wide Web
(4) An acronym for Unlimited Resources for Learning
(5) A piece of hard ware

190. What is the significance of a faded (dimmed) command in a pull-down menu?

(1) The command is not currently accessible.
(2) A dialog box appears if the command is selected.
(3) A Help window appears if the command is selected.
(4) There are no equivalent keystrokes for the particular command.
(5) None of these

191. Your business has contracted with another company to have thorn host and run an application for your company over the Internet. The company providing this service to your business is called an

(1) internet service provider
(2) internet access provider
(3) application service provider
(4) application access provider
(5) outsource agency

192. A(n) ............. allows you to access your e-mail from anywhere.

(1) forum
(2) webmail interface
(3) message board
(4) weblog
(5) None of these

193. Which of the following would you find on Linkedln?

(1) Games
(2) Connections
(3) Chat
(4) Applications
(5) None of these

194. ............. is a technique that is used to send more than one call over a single line.

(1) Digital transmission
(2) Infrared transmission
(3) Digitizing
(4) Streaming
(5) Multiplexing

195. The Search Companion can

(1) locate all files containing a specified phrase
(2) restrict its search to a specified set of folders
(3) locate all files containing a specified phrase and restrict its search to a specified set of folders
(4) cannot locate all files containing a specified phrase or restrict its search to a specified set of folders
(5) None of these

196. Which of the following cannot be part of an email address?

(1) Period (.)
(2) At sign (@)
(3) Space ()
(4) Underscore (_)
(5) None of these

197. Which of the following must be contained in a URL?

(1) A protocol identifier
(2) The letters www
(3) The unique registered domain name
(4) www. and the unique registered domain name
(5) A protocol identifier, www. and the unique registered domain name

198. Which of the following information systems focuses on making manufacturing processes more efficient and of higher quality?

(1) Computer-aided manufacturing
(2) Computer-integrated manufacturing
(3) Computer-aided software engineering
(4) Computer-aided system engineering
(5) None of these

199. A mistake in an algorithm that causes incorrect results is called a

(1) logical error
(2) syntax error
(3) procedural error
(4) compiler error
(5) machine error

200. A device for changing the connection on a connector to a different configuration is

(1) a converter
(2) a component
(3) an attachment
(4) an adapter
(5) voltmeter

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012 "General Awareness"

 

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: General Awareness


101. A money deposited in a bank that cannot be withdrawn for a preset fixed period of time is known as a

(1) Term deposit
(2) Checking Account
(3) Savings Bank Deposit
(4) No Frills Account
(5) Current Deposit

102. A worldwide financial messaging network which exchanges messages between banks and financial institutions is known as

(1) CHAPS
(2) SWIFT
(3) NEFT
(4) SFMS
(5) CHIPS

103. Which of the following ministries alongwith the Planning Commission of India has decided to set up a Corpus Fund of Rs 500 crore, so that tribals in Naxal-hit areas can be provided proper means of livelihood?
 

(1) Ministry of Rural Development
(2) Ministry of Home Affairs
(3) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
(4) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(5) Ministry of Finance

104. Which of the following was the issue over which India decided to vote against Sri Lanka in the meeting of one of the UN-governed bodies/agencies?

(1) Violations of human rights in Sri Lanka
(2) Allowing China to establish a military base in the Indian Ocean
(3) Issue of subsidy on agricultural products in the meeting of the WTO
(4) Allowing part of Sri Lanka to become an independent country governed by LTTE
(5) Sri Lanka’s claim to become a permanent member of UN Security Council

105. The term ‘Smart Money’ refers to

(1) Foreign Currency
(2) Internet Banking
(3) US Dollars
(4) Travellers’ Cheques
(5) Credit Cards

106. Which of the following is not a ‘Money Market Instrument’?

(1) Treasury Bills
(2) Commercial Paper
(3) Certificate of Deposit
(4) Equity Shares
(5) None of these

107. Which of the following is a retail banking product?

(1) Home Loans
(2) Working capital finance
(3) Corporate term loans
(4) Infrastructure financing
(5) Export Credit

108. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the political situation in Mali, where a military coup burst out recently?

(1) General elections were due there in March/April 2012 but did not take place.
(2) The country has been under the control of the US army for the last 18 months.
(3) The army of the country was not happy as Amadou Toure was made President without elections for the next five years.
(4) A coup broke out in Mali when Amadou Toure, the military chief, got seriously injured in a bomb blast.
(5) NATO and its associates had planned a coup there.

109. In the summit of which of the following organizations/ group of nations it was decided that all members should enforce Budget Discipline?

(1) G-8 (2) OPEC
(3) European Union (4) SAARC
(5) G-20

110. As per newspaper reports, India is planning to use ‘SEU’ as fuel in its 700MW nuclear reactors being developed in new planets. What is the full form of 'SEU’ as used here?

(1) Safe Electrical Units
(2) Small Electrical Units
(3) Slightly Enriched Uranium
(4) Sufficiently Enriched Units
(5) Safely Enriched Uranium

111. Technological advancement in recent times has given a new dimension to banks, mainly to which of the following aspects?

(1) New Age Financial Derivatives
(2) Service Delivery Mechanism
(3) Any Banking
(4) Any Type Banking
(5) Multilevel Marketing

112. When there is a difference between all receipts and expenditure of the Govt of India, both capital and revenue, it is called

(1) Revenue Deficit
(2) Budgetary Deficit
(3) Zero Budgeting
(4) Trade Gap
(5) Balance of payments problem

113. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Reserve Bank of India?

(1) Fiscal Policy Functions
(2) Exchange Control Functions
(3) Issuance, Exchange and Destruction of currency notes
(4) Monetary Authority Functions
(5) Supervisory and Control Functions

114. Which of the following is NOT required for opening a bank account?

(1) Identity Proof
(2) Address Proof
(3) Recent Photographs
(4) Domicile Certificate
(5) None of these

115. The Golden Jubilee of Afro-Asian Rural Development Organisation was organized in which of the following places in March 2012?

(1) Dhaka (2) Tokyo
(3) Cairo (4) Kuala Lampur
(5) New Delhi

116. What is the maximum deposit amount insured by DICGC?

(1) Rs 2,00,000 per depositor per bank
(2) Rs 2,00,000 per depositor across all banks
(3) Rs 1,00,000 per depositor per bank
(4) Rs 1,00,000 per depositor across all banks
(5) None of these

117. The present Foreign Trade policy of India will continue till

(1) December 2012
(2) March 2013
(3) March 2014
(4) June 2013
(5) December 2014

118. With reference to a cheque, which of the following is the ‘drawee bank’?

(1) The bank that collects the cheque
(2) The payee’s bank
(3) The endorsee’s bank
(4) The endorser’s bank
(5) The bank upon which the cheque is drawn

119. In which of the following fund transfer mechanisms, can funds be moved from one bank to another and where the transaction is settled instantly without being bunched with any other transaction?

(1) RTGS
(2) NEFT
(3) TT
(4) EFT
(5) MT

120. What was the reason owing to which Enrica Lexie, an Italian ship, was detained by the Port Authorities in Kerala and was brought to Cochin port for inspection and search?

(1) It was carrying objectionable material.
(2) It was involved in sea piracy.
(3) It was detained as the crew killed two Indian fishermen.
(4) The ship started sailing without making payments of iron ore it loaded.
(5) It was detained as it was dumping nuclear waste in deep sea.

121. Which of the following agencies/organiz-ations recently gave a ‘go-ahead’ verdict to India’s one of the most controversial project of interlinking rivers? (Some of the rivers are international.)

(1) UN Food and Agriculture Organisation
(2) World Meteorological Organisation
(3) International Court of Justice
(4) Central Water Commission
(5) Supreme Court of India

122. Who among the following was the Captain of the Australian Team which played four Test matches against India in January 2012 and won all of them?

(1) Ricky Ponting
(2) Michael Clarke
(3) Nathan Lyon
(4) Stuart Clark
(5) Andrew Symonds

123. The committee on review of National Small Savings Fund (NSSF) was headed by

(1) Dr C Rangarajan
(2) UK Sinha
(3) Dr YV Reddy
(4) Shyamala Gopinath
(5) Dr Usha Thorat

124. Banking Ombudsman Scheme is applicable to the business of

(1) All scheduled commercial banks exclu-ding RRBs
(2) All scheduled commercial banks inclu-ding RRBs
(3) Only public sector banks
(4) All banking companies
(5) All scheduled banks except private banks

125. The 5th Asian Indoor Athletics Champio-nship was organised in February 2012 in

(1) Bangladesh
(2) India
(3) Qatar
(4) China
(5) South Korea

126. Nationalisations of banks aimed at all of the following except

(1) Provision of adequate credit for agriculture, SME & exports
(2) Removal of control by a few capitalists
(3) Provision of credit to big industries only
(4) Access of banking to masses
(5) Encouragement of a new class of entrepreneurs

127. Who among the following was the Chief Guest at the three-day Pravasi Bharatiya Divas function held in January 2012?

(1) Kamla Persad Bissessar
(2) Ram Baran Yadav
(3) Lakshmi Mittal
(4) Salman Rushdie
(5) Benjamin Netanyahu

128. Which of the following banks is headed by a woman CEO?

(1) Bank of Baroda
(2) HDFC Bank
(3) Central Bank of India
(4) Punjab National Bank
(5) lCICI Bank

129. As per revised RBI guidelines, Provision on secured portion of loan accounts classified as Doubtful Assets for more than one year and upto 3 (three) years is to be made at the rate of

(1) 15%
(2) 20%
(3) 40%
(4) 25%
(5) 30%

130. As per the provisions in the Food Security Bill 2011, how much food grain should be given per month to each person of the target group?

(1) 5 kg
(2) 7 kg
(3) 9 kg
(4) 10 kg
(5) 20 kg

131. Which of the following acts is in vogue in India is against the thinking of raising school fee as per demand of the market forces?

(1) Prevention of Corruption Act
(2) Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act
(3) Sharda Act
(4) Right to Education Act
(5) MG National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

132. Which of the following states has launched ‘Panch Parmeshwar Yojana’,under which panchayats are allowed to use the fund for developing infrastructure and basic amenities in villages?

(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Gujarat
(4) Madhya Pradesh
(5) Tamil Nadu

133. Base Rate is the rate below which no Bank can allow their lending to anyone. Who sets up this ‘Base Rate’ for Banks?

(1) Individual Banks’ Board
(2) Ministry of Commerce
(3) Ministry of Finance
(4) RBI
(5) Interest Rate Commission of India

134. National Table Tennis Championship was organised in January 2012 in

(1) Mumbai
(2) Delhi
(3) Hyderabad
(4) Lucknow
(5) Jaipur

135. Who among the following is the author of the book Nirbasan

(1) Mahashweta Devi
(2) Taslima Nasreen
(3) Sunil Gangopadhyay
(4) Vikram Seth
(5) Kiran Desai

136. What is a’Debit Card’?

(1) It is a card issued by a Rating Agency.
(2) It is a card which can be used for withdrawing cash or making payment even in the absence of any balance in the account.
(3) It is a card which can be used for withdrawing cash or making payment if there is balance in the account.
(4) It is a card which carries prepaid balance.
(5) It is a card which can be used for making STD calls.

137. Who among the following Indian Lawn Tennis players won a Doubles of Australian Open 2012?

(1) Mahesh Bhupathi
(2) Kamlesh Mehta
(3) Leander Paes (4) Sania Mirza
(5) Achanta Sarath Kamal

138. ‘Akula-11’ Class ‘K.-152 Nerpa was inducted in Indian Navy recently. These are

(1) Aircraft
(2) Radar Systems
(3) Submarines Missile
(4) Warships
(5) Submarines

139. Which of the following awards was conferred upon late Mario de Miranda (posthumously) in January 2012?

(1) Padma Vibhushan
(2) Bharat Ratna
(3) Kalidas Samman
(4) Saraswati Samman
(5) Padmashri

140. Bad advances of a Bank are called

(1) Bad debt
(2) Book debt
(3) Non-Performing Asset
(4) Out-of-order accounts
(5) Overdrawn accounts

141. Axis Bank is a

(1) Public Sector Bank
(2) Private Sector Bank
(3) Co-operative Bank
(4) Foreign Bank (5) Gramin Bank

142. By increasing repo rate, the economy may observe the following effect(s):

(1) Rate of interest on loans and advances will be costlier.
(2) Industrial output would be affected to an extent.
(3) Banks will increase rate of interest on deposits.
(4) Industry houses may borrow money from foreign countries.
(5) All of these

143. Increased interest rates, as is existing in the economy at present, will

(1) Lead to higher GDP growth
(2) Lead to lower GDP growth
(3) Mean higher cost of raw materials
(4) Mean lower cost of raw materials
(5) Mean higher wage bill

144. Which of the following schemes has been launched to provide pension to people in unorganised sectors in India?

(1) Swabhiman
(2) Jeevan Dhara
(3) Jeevan Kalyan
(4) ASHA
(5) Swavalamban

145. The 10th Basic Ministerial Meeting on Climate Change was organised in February 2012 in

(1) Tokyo
(2) Beijing
(3) Manila
(4) Moscow
(5) New Delhi

146. Finance Ministry has asked the Reserve Bank of India to allow common ATMs that will be owned and managed by non-banking entities, hoping to cut transaction costs for banks. Such ATMs are known as

(1) Black Label ATMs
(2) Offsite ATMs
(3) On-site ATM’s or Red ATMs
(4) Third Party ATMs
(5) White Label ATMs

147. Which of the following schemes of the Govt of India has provided electricity to 99000 villages and total 1.7 crore households uptil now?

(1) Kutir Jyoti
(2) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana
(3) Bharat Nirman
(4) PURA (5) SEWA

148. Ranbir Kapoor was awarded Best Actor Award in 57th Filmfare Award Function for his performance in

(1) No One Killed Jessica
(2) Stanley Ka Dabba
(3) 7 Khoon Maaf (4) Rockstar
(5) Zindagi Na Milegi Dobara

149. An ECS transaction gets bounced and you are unable to recover your money from your customer. Under which Act can criminal action be initiated?

(1) Indian Penal Code
(2) Negotiable Instruments Act
(3) Criminal Procedure Code
(4) Payment and Settlements Act
(4) Indian Contract Act

150. Rajendra had filed a complaint with Banking Ombudsman but is not satisfied with the decision. What is the next option before him for getting his matter resolved?

(1) Write to the CMD of the Bank
(2) File an appeal before the Finance Minister
(3) File an appeal before the Banking Ombudsman again
(4) File an appeal before the Dy Governor of RBI
(5) Simply close the matter as going to court involves time and money

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012 "Quantitative Aptitude"

 

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: Quantitative Aptitude


Directions (Q. 51 -55) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

51. 4003 × 77 – 21015 = ? × 116

(1) 2477
(2) 2478
(3) 2467
(4) 2476
(5) None of these

52. [(5Ö7 + Ö7) × (4Ö7 + 8Ö7)] – (19)2 = ?

(1) 143
(2) 72Ö7
(3) 134
(4) 70Ö7
(5) None of these

53. (4444÷ 40) + (645 ÷ 25) + (3991 ÷ 26) = ?

(1) 280.4
(2) 290.4
(3) 295.4
(4) 285.4
(5) None of these

54.

(1) 37
(2) 33
(3) 34
(4) 28
(5) None of these

55.

(1) 303.75
(2) 305.75
(3) 303
(4) 305
(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 56-60): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

56.

 8787 ÷ 343 × Ö50=?

(1) 250
(2) 140
(3) 180
(4) 100
(5) 280

57.

(1) 48
(2) 38
(3) 28
(4) 18
(5) 58

58.

of 4011.33 + of 3411.22 = ?

(1) 4810
(2) 4980
(3) 4890
(4) 4930
(5) 4850

59.

23% of 6783 + 57% of 8431 = ?

(1) 6460
(2) 6420
(3) 6320
(4) 6630
(5) 6360

60.

 335.01 × 244.99 ÷ 55 = ?

(1) 1490
(2) 1550
(3) 1420
(4) 1590
(5) 1400

Directions (Q. 61-65) : In each of these questions a number series is given. In each series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

61.

5531 5506 5425 5304 5135 4910 4621
 

(1) 5531
(2) 5425
(3) 4621
(4) 5135
(5) 5506

62.

 6 7 9 13 26 37 69

(1) 7
(2) 26
(3) 69
(4) 37
(5) 9

63.

1 3 10 36 152 760 4632
(1) 3
(2) 36
(3) 4632
(4) 760 (5) 152

64.

 4 3 9 34 96 219 435
(1) 4
(2) 9
(3) 34
(4) 435
(5) 219

65.

 157.5 45 15 6 3 2 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 157.5
(5) 45

Directions (Q. 66-70): Study the following graph and table carefully and answer the questions given below:


Time taken to travel (in hours) by six
vehicles on two different days

66. Which of the following vehicles travelled at the same speed on both the days?

(1) Vehicle A
(2) Vehicle C
(3) Vehicle F
(4) Vehicle B
(5) None of these

67. What was the difference between the speed of Vehicle A on Day 1 and the speed of Vehicle C on the same day?

(1) 7 km/hr
(2) 12 km/hr
(3) 11 km/hr
(4) 8 km/hr
(5) None of these

68. What was the speed of Vehicle C on Day 2 in terms of metres per second?

(1) 15.3
(2) 12.8
(3) 11.5
(4) 13.8
(5) None of these

69. The distance travelled by Vehicle F on Day 2 was approximately what per cent of the distance travelled by it on Day 1?

(1) 80
(2) 65
(3) 85
(4) 95
(5) 90

70. What is the ratio of the speeds of Vehicle D and Vehicle E on Day 2?

(1) 15:13
(2) 17:13
(3) 13:11
(4) 17:14
(5) None of these

71. An article was purchased for ?78,350. Its price was marked up by 30%. It was sold at a discount of 20% on the marked-up price. What was the profit per cent on the cost price?

(1) 4%
(2) 7%
(3) 5%
(4) 3%
(5) 6%

72. When X is subtracted from the numbers 9, 15 and 27, the remainders are in continued proportion. What is the value of X?

(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 5
(5) None of these

73. What is the difference between the simple and the compound interest on ` 7,300 at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a. in 2 years?

(1) Rs 29.37
(2) Rs 26.28
(3) Rs 31.41
(4) Rs 23.22
(5) Rs 21.34


74. The sum of three consecutive numbers is 2262. What is 41% of the highest number?

(1) 301.51
(2) 303.14
(3) 308.73
(4) 306.35
(5) 309.55

75. In how many different ways can the letters of the word THERAPY’ be arranged so that the vowels never come together?

(1) 720
(2) 1440
(3) 5040
(4) 3600
(5) 4800

 

76. What is the ratio of the number of mobile phones sold of Company B during July to those sold during December of the same company?

(1) 119 : 145
(2) 116 : 135
(3) 119 : 135
(4) 119 : 130
(5) None of these

77. If 35% of the mobile phones sold by Company A during November were sold at a discount, how many mobile phones of Company A during that month were sold without a discount?

(1) 882
(2) 1635
(3) 1638
(4) 885
(5) None of these


78. If the shopkeeper earned a profit of Rs 433 on each mobile phone sold of Company B during October, what was his total profit earned on the mobile phones of that company during the same month?

(1) Rs 6,49,900
(2) Rs 6,45,900
(3) Rs 6,49,400
(4) Rs6,49,500
(5) None of these

79. The number of mobile phones sold of Company A during July is approximately what per cent of the number of mobile phones sold of Company A during December?

(1) 110
(2) 140
(3) 150
(4) 105
(5) 130

80. What is the total number of mobile phones sold of Company B during August and September together?

(1) 10000
(2) 15000
(3) 10500
(4) 9500
(5) None of these
 

Directions (Q. 81-85): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow:
The premises of a bank are to be renovated. The renovation is in terms of flooring. Certain areas are to be floored either with marble or wood. All rooms/halls and pantry are rectangular. The area to be renovated comprises a hall for customer transaction measuring 23m by 29m, the branch manager’s room measuring 13m by 17m, a pantry measuring 14m by 13m, a record keeping-cum-server room measuring 21 m by 13 m and locker area measuring 29m by 21 m. The total area of the bank is 2000 square metres. The cost of wooden flooring is ` 170 per square metre and the cost of marble flooring is ` 190 per square metre. The locker area, record keeping-cum-server room and pantry are to be floored with marble. The branch manager’s room and the hall for customer transaction are to be floored with wood. No other area is to be renovated in terms of flooring.

81. What is the ratio of the total cost of wooden flooring to the total cost of marble flooring?

(1) 1879:2527
(2) 1887:2386
(3) 1887:2527
(4) 1829:2527
(5) 1887:2351

82. If the four walls and ceiling of the branch manager’s room (the height of the room is 12 metres) are to be painted at the cost of ` 190 per square metre, how much will be the total cost of renovation of the branch manager’s room, including the cost of flooring?

(1) Rs 1,36,800
(2) Rs 2,16,660
(3) Rs 1,78,790
(4) Rs 2,11,940
(5) None of these
 

83. If the remaining area of the bank is to be carpeted at the rate of ` 110 per square metre, how much will be the increment in the total cost of renovation of bank premises?

(1) Rs 5,820
(2) Rs 4,848
(3) Rs 3,689
(4) Rs 6,690
(5) None of these

84. What is the percentage area of the bank that is not to be renovated?

(1) 2.2%
(2) 2.4%
(3) 4.2%
(4) 4.4%
(5) None of these

85. What is the total cost of renovation of the hall for customer transaction and the locker area?

(1) Rs 23,100
(2) Rs 2,3036
(3) Rs 2,16,920
(4) Rs 2,42,440
(5) None of these
 

86. A certain amount was to be distributed among A, B and C in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4, but was erroneously distributed in the ratio 7 : 2 : 5. As a result of this, B got 740 less. What is the amount?

(1) Rs 210
(2) Rs 270
(3) Rs 230
(4) Rs 280
(5) None of these

87. Racliita enters a shop to buy ice-creams, cookies and pastries. She has to buy at least 9 units of each. She buys more cookies than ice-creams and more pastries than cookies. She picks up a total of 32 items. How many cookies does she buy?

(1) Either 12 or 13
(2) Either 11 or 12
(3) Either 10 or 11
(4) Either 9 or 11
(5) Either 9 or 10

88. The fare of a bus is Rs X for the first five kilometres and Rs 13 per kilometre thereafter, if a passenger pays Rs 2402 for a journey of 187 kilometres, what is the value of X?

(1) Rs 29
(2) Rs 39
(3) Rs 36
(4) Rs 3I
(5) None of these

89. The product of three consecutive even numbers is 4032. The product of the first and the third number is 252. What is five times the second number?

(1) 80
(2) 100
(3) 60
(4) 70
(5) 90

90. The sum of the ages of 4 members of a family 5 years ago was 94 years. Today, when the daughter has been married off and replaced by a daughter-in-law, the sum of their ages is 92. Assuming that there has been no other change in the family structure and all the people are alive, what is the difference between the age of the daughter and that of the daughter-in-law?

(1) 22 years
(2) 11 years
(3) 25 years
(4) 19 years
(5) 15 years
 

91. A bag contains 13 white and 7 black balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that they are of the same colour?
 

(1) 41/ 190

(2)  21/190

(3) 59/190

(4)  99/190

(5)  77/190


92. Akash scored 73 marks in subject A. He scored 56% marks in subject B and X marks in subject C. Maximum marks in each subject were 150. The overall percentage marks obtained by Akash in all the three subjects together was 54%. How many marks did he score in subject C?
 

(1) 84
(2) 86
(3) 79
(4) 73
(5) None of these
 

93. The area of a square is 1444 square metres. The breadth of a rectangle is 1/4 the side of the square and the length of the rectangle is thrice its breadth. What is the difference between the area of the square and the area of the rectangle?

(1) 1152.38 sq mtr
(2) 1169.33 sq mtr
(3) 1181.21 sq mtr
(4) 1173.25sq mtr
(5) None of these

94. Rs 73,689 are divided between A and B in the ratio 4 : 7. What is the difference between thrice the share of A and twice the share of B?

(1) Rs 36,699
(2) Rs 46,893
(3) Rs 20,097
(4) Rs 26,796
(5) Rs 13,398

95. A and B together can complete a task in 20 days. B and C together can complete the same task in 30 days. A and C together can complete the same task in 40 days. What is the ratio of the number of days taken by A when completing the same task alone to the number of days taken by C when completing the same task alone ?

(1) 2 : 5
(2) 2 : 7
(3) 3 : 7
(4) 1 : 5
(5) 3 : 5
 

Directions (Q. 96-100): Study the following information and answer the questions that follow:
The graph given below represents the production (in tonnes) and sales (in tonnes) of company a from

96. What is the approximate percentage increase in the production of Company A (in tonnes) from the year 2009 to the production of Company A (in tonnes) in the year 2010?

(1) 18%
(2) 38%
(3) 23%
(4) 27%
(5) 32%

97. The sales of Company A in the year 2009 was approximately what per cent of the production of Company A in the same year?
 

(1) 65%
(2) 73%
(3) 79%
(4) 83%
(5) 69%

98. What is the average production of Company B (in tonnes) from the year 2006 to the year 2011 ?

(1) 574
(2) 649
(3) 675
(4) 593
(5) 618

99. What is the ratio of the total production (in tonnes) of Company A to the total sales (in tonnes) of Company A?

(1) 81 : 64
(2) 64 : 55
(3) 71 : 81
(4) 71 : 55
(5) 81 : 55

100. What is the ratio of production of Company B (in tonnes) in the year 2006 to production of Company B (in tonnes) in the year 2008?

(1) 2 : 5
(2) 4 : 5
(3) 3 : 4
(4) 3 : 5
(5) 1 : 4

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012 "Reasoning"

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IBPS (PO) Previous Year Exam Paper - 2012

Subject: Reasoning


Directions (Q. 1-4) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)
Input : tall 48 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn
Step I : 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn alt
StepII : 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt barn
Step III : 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jar 56 alt barn high
Step IV : 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt barn high jar
Step V : 56 48 32 28 13 ta99 76 wise alt barn high jar rise
Step VI : 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt barn high jar rise tall
Step VII : 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt barn high jar rise tall wise
And Step VII is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtainied.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
Input: 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92 (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)

1. Which step number is the following output?

32 27 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feet best ink
(1) StepV (2) Step VI
(3) Step IV (4) Step III
(5) There is no such step.

2. Which word/number would be at 5th position from the right in Step V?

(1) 14 (2) 92
(3) feet (4) best
(5) why

3. How many elements (words or numbers) are there between ‘feet’ and ‘32’ as they appear in the last step of the output?

(1) One (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five
(5) Seven

4. Which of the following represents the position of ‘why’ in the fourth step?

(1) Eighth from the left
(2) Fifth from the right
(3) Sixth from the left
(4) Fifth from the left
(5) Seventh from the left


Directions (Q. 5-11) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.

  •  B sits second to the left of H’s husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of B.
  •  D’s daughter sits second to the right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbour of H’s husband.
  •  Only one person sits between A and F. A is father of G. H’s brother D sits on the immediate left of H’s mother. Only one person sits between H’s mother and E.
  •  Only one person sits between H and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.

5. What is the position of A with respect to his mother-in- law?

(1) Immediate left (2) Third to the right
(3) Third to the left
(4) Second to the right
(5) Fourth to the left

6. Who amongst the following is D’s daughter?

(1) B
(2) C
(3) E
(4) G
(5) H

7. What is the position of A with respect to his grand child?

(1) Immediate right
(2) Third to the right
(3) Third to the left
(4) Second to the left
(5) Fourth to the left

8. How many people sit between G and her uncle?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) F
(2) C
(3) E
(4) H
(5) G

10. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?

(1) C is cousin of E.
(2) H and H’s husband are immediate neighbours of each other.
(3) No female is an immediate neighbour of C.
(4) H sits third to the left of her daughter.
(5) Bis mother of H.

11. Who sits on the immediate left of C?

(1) F’s grandmother
(2) G ‘s son
(3) D’s mother-in-law
(4) A
(5) G

Directions (Q. 12-18): In each group of questions below are given two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two/three statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer

(1) if only conclusion I follows.
(2) if only conclusion II follows.
(3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
(4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
(5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

12.

Statements:

Some exams are tests.
No exam is a question.

Conclusions:

I. No question is a test.
II. Some tests are definitely not exams.

(13-14):

Statements:

All forces are energies.
All energies are powers.
No power is heat.

13.

Conclusions:

 I. Some forces are definitely not powers.
II. No heat is force.

14.

Conclusions:

 I. No energy is heat.
II. Some forces being heat is a possibility.

(15-16):

Statements: No note is a coin.
Some coins are metals.
All plastics are notes.

15.

Conclusions:

I. No coin is plastic.
II. All plastics being metals is a possibility.

16.

Conclusions:

 I. No metal is plastic.
II. All notes are plastics.

17.

Statements:

Some symbols are figures.
All symbols are graphics.
No graphic is a picture.

Conclusions:

I. Some graphics are figures.
II. No symbol is a picture.

18.

Statements:

 All vacancies are jobs.
Some jobs are occupations.

Conclusions:

I. All vacancies are occupations.
II. All occupations being vacancies is a possibility.

Directions (Q. 19-21):

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:

Each of the six friends - A, B, C, D, E and F - scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than only A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.

19. Which of the following could possibly be C’s score?

(1) 70
(2) 94
(3) 86
(4) 61
(5) 81

20. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?

(1) D’s score was definitely less than 60.
(2) F scored the maximum marks.
(3) Only two people scored more than C.
(4) There is a possibility that B scored 79 marks.
(5) None is true

21. The person who scored the maximum, scored 13 marks more than F’s marks. Which of the following can be D’s score?

(1) 94
(2) 60
(3) 89
(4) 78
(5) 81

Directions (Q. 22-29): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

Eight persons from different banks, viz UCO Bank. Syndicate Bank. Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra, are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing south. In row 2, P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. (All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement.)

  • C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
  • Only one person sits between R and the person from PNB. The immediate neighbour of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
  • The person from UCO bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
  • Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
  • B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.

22. Which of the following is true regarding A?

(1) The person from UCO Bank faces A.
(2) The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbour of A.
(3) A faces the person who sits second to the right of R.
(4) A is from Oriental Bank of Commerce.
(5) A sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.

23. Who is seated between R and the person from PNB?

(1) The person from Oriental Bank of Commerce
(2) P
(3) Q
(4) The person from Syndicate Bank
(5) S

24. Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?

(1) D and the person from PNB
(2) The persons from Indian Bank and UCO Bank
(3) The persons from Dena Bank and P
(4) The persons from Syndicate Bank and D
(5) C,Q

25. Who amongst the following faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra?

(1) The person from Indian Bank
(2) P
(3) R
(4) The person from Syndicate Bank
(5) The person from Canara Bank

26. P is related to Dena Bank in the same way as B is related to PNB based on the given arrangement. Who amongst the following is D related to, following the same pattern?

(1) Syndicate Bank
(2) Canara Bank
(3) Bank of Maharashtra
(4) Indian Bank
(5) Oriental Bank of Commerce

27. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) Canara Bank
(2) R
(3) Syndicate Bank
(4) Q
(5) Oriental Bank of Commerce

28. Who amongst the following is from Syndicate Bank?

(1) C
(2) R
(3) P
(4) D
(5) A

29. C is from which of the following banks?

(1) Dena Bank
(2) Oriental Bank of Commerce
(3) UCO Bank
(4) Syndicate Bank
(5) Canara Bank

Directions (Q. 30-34) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and Give answer

(1) if the data in Statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question.
(2) if the data in Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II are not required to answer the question.
(3) if the data in Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I are not required to answer the question.
(4) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone or in Statement III alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(5) if the data in all the Statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question.

30. Among six people P, Q, R, S, T and V, each lives on a different floor of a six-storey building having its six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2, and so on, and the topmost floor is numbered 6).

Who lives on the topmost floor?

I. There is only one floor between the floors on which R and Q live. P lives on an even-numbered floor.
II. T does not live on an even-numbered floor. Q lives on an even-numbered floor. Q does not live on the topmost floor.
III. S lives on an odd-numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which S and P live. T lives on a floor immediately above R’s floor.

31. There are six letters W, A, R, S, N and E. Is ‘ANSWER’ the word formed after performing the following operations using these six letters only?

I. E is placed fourth to the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to either A or E.
II. R is placed immediately next (either left or right) to E. W is placed immediately next (either left or right) to S.
III. Both N and W are placed immediately next to S. The word does not begin with R. A is not placed immediately next to W.

32. Point D is in whieh direction with respect to Point B?

I. Point A is to the west of Point B. Point C is to the north of Point B. Point D is to the south of Point C.
II. Point G is to the south of Point D. Point G is 4m from Point B. Point D is 9m from Point B.
III. Point A is to the west of Point B. Point B is exactly midway between Point A and E. Point F is to the south of Point E. Point D is to the west of Point F

33. How is ‘one’ coded in a code language?

I. ‘one of its kind, is coded as ‘zo pi ko fe’ and ‘in kind and cash’ is coded as ‘ga to ru ko’.
II. ‘its point for origin’ is coded as ‘ba le fe mi’ and ‘make a point clear’ is coded as ‘yu si mi de’.
III. ‘make money and cash’ is coded as ‘to mi ru hy’ and ‘money of various kind’ is coded as ‘qu ko zo hy’.

34. Are all the four friends, viz A, B, C and D, who are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre?

I. B sits second to the right of D. D faces the centre. C sits on the immediate right of both B and D.
II. A sits on the immediate left of B. C is not an immediate neighbour of A. C sits on the immediate right of D.
III. D is an immediate neighbour of both A and C. B sits on the immediate left of A. C sits on the immediate right of B.
Directions (Q. 35): Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows:
Farmers found using chemical fertilizers in the organic-farming area of their farms would be heavily fined.

35. Which of the following statements is an assumption implicit in the given statement? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted.)

(1) Chemical fertilisers harm the crop.
(2) A farm’s area for organic and chemical farming is different.
(3) Farmers who do not use chemical fertilizers in the chemical farming area would be penalized as well.
(4) All farmers undertake both these kinds of fanning (chemical as well as organic) in their farms.
(5) Organic fertilizers are banned in the area for chemical farming.

Directions (Q. 36-40): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow Small brands are now looking beyond local grocery stores and are tying up with supermarkets such as Big Bazaar to pull their business out of troubled waters.

36. Which of the following can be inferred from the given information? (An inference is something that is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given information)

(1) Merchandise of smaller brands would not be available at local grocery stores in the near future.
(2) Smaller brands cannot compete with bigger ones in a supermarket set-up.’
(3) There is a perception among small brands that sale in a supermarket is higher than that of small grocery stores.
(4) Supermarkets generate more revenue by selling  products of bigger brands as compared to the smaller ones.
(5) Smaller brands have always had more tie-ups with supermarkets as compared to small grocery stores.

Directions (Q. 37-40): These questions are based on the information given above and the sentences labelled (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) as given below.

(A) A smaller brand manufacturing a certain product of quality comparable with that of a bigger brand, makes much more profit from the local grocery stores than from the supermarkets.
(B) As the supermarkets have been set up only in bigger cities at present, this step would fail to deliver results in the smaller cities.
(C) Supermarkets help the smaller brands break into newer markets without investing substantially in distribution.
(D) Supermarkets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands.
(E) Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, visibility of the smaller brands at local grocery stores is much lower as compared to the supermarkets.
(F) Smaller brands are currently making substantial losses in their businesses.

37. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) can be assumed from the facts/ information given in the statement? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted)

(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Both (B) and (C)
(4) Both (D) and (E)
(5) Only (F)

38. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (E) and (F) represents a disadvantage of the small grocery stores over the supermarkets from the perspective of a smaller brand?

(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (C)
(3) Only (E)
(4) Only (F)
(5) Both (B) and (C)

39. Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above represents a reason for the shift from local grocery stores to Supermarkets by the smaller brands?

(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (D)
(4) Both (A) and (D)
(5) Both (C) and (E)

40. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (E) and (F) mentioned above would prove that the step taken by the smaller brands (of moving to supermarkets) may not necessarily be correct?

(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (C)
(3) Only (E)
(4) Only (F)
(5) Both (B) and (E)

Directions (Q. 41-45): In each of the questions given below which of the five Answer Figures on the right should come after the Problem Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

Directions (Q. 46-50): In each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series/sequence (like Q. 41-45) . One and only one out of the five figures does not fit in the series/sequence. The number of that figure is you answer.

46

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (23 June 2015)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (23 June 2015)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


1. The deadline for the exchange of the old currency notes fixed by RBI is

1.June 30, 2015.
2.July 1 2015
3.august 14 2015
4.april 1 2016

2. The Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission (FSLRC), body set up in

1.2012
2.2011
3.2013
4.2014

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (20 June 2015)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (20 June 2015)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


1.------ is the founder of wikiLeaks

1.Julian Assange
2.Edward Snowden
3.Robert Peare
4.none of these

2. The Global Energy Prize, given by

1.America
2.Russia
3.Germany
4.UN

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (19 June 2015)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (19 June 2015)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


1. June -----, is the UNHCR's World Refugee Day

1.12ve
2.20th
3,15th
4.23rd

2.IMF headquarter is situated at

1.Zeneva
2.New York
3.Washington
4.Paris

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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(Notification) IBPS RRB (IV) Exam - 2015

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(Notification) RRB (IV) Exam - 2015

The online examination for the Common Recruitment Process for RRBs (RRBs of Group “A”-Officers (Scale-I, II & III) and Group “B” -Office Assistants (Multipurpose) will be conducted online by the Institute of Banking Personnel  Selection (IBPS)  tentatively in September 2015.

PARTICIPATING RRBs:

Sr. No Name of the RRB Present Head Office State / UT Local Language Proficiency as prescribed by the Participating RRB
1 Allahabad UP Gramin Bank Banda Uttar Pradesh Hindi, Urdu, Sanskrit
2 Andhra Pradesh Grameena Vikas Bank Warangal Telangana Telugu
3 Andhra Pragathi Grameena Bank Kadapa Andhra Pradesh Telugu
4 Arunachal Pradesh Rural Bank Naharlagun (Papumpare) Arunachal Pradesh English
5 Assam Gramin Vikash Bank Guwahati Assam Assamese, Bengali, Bodo
6 Bangiya Gramin Vikash Bank Murshidabad West Bengal Bengali
7 Baroda Gujarat Gramin Bank Bharuch Gujarat Gujarati
8 Baroda Rajasthan Kshetriya Gramin Bank Ajmer Rajasthan Hindi
9 Baroda UP Gramin Bank Raibareilly Uttar Pradesh Hindi, Urdu, Sanskrit
10 Bihar Gramin Bank Begusarai Bihar Hindi
11 Central Madhya Pradesh Gramin Bank Chhindwara Madhya Pradesh Hindi
12 Chaitanya Godavari Grameena Bank Guntur Andhra Pradesh Telugu
13 Chhattisgarh Rajya Gramin Bank Raipur Chhattisgarh Hindi
14 Dena Gujarat Gramin Bank Gandhinagar Gujarat Gujarati
15 Ellaquai Dehati Bank Srinagar Jammu & Kashmir Dogri, Kashmiri, Punjabi, Urdu, Gojri, Pahari, Ladakhi, Balti (Palli), Dardi, Hindi
16 Gramin Bank of Aryavart Lucknow Uttar Pradesh Hindi
17 Himachal Pradesh Gramin Bank Mandi Himachal Pradesh Hindi
18 J & K Grameen Bank Jammu Jammu & Kashmir Dogri, Kashmiri, Pahari, Gojri, Punjabi, Ladakhi, Balti (Palli), Dardi
19 Jharkhand Gramin Bank Ranchi Jharkhand Hindi
20 Karnataka Vikas Grameen Bank Dharwad Karnataka Kannada
21 Kashi Gomti Samyut Gramin Bank Varanasi Uttar Pradesh Hindi
22 Kaveri Grameena Bank Mysore Karnataka Kannada
23 Kerala Gramin Bank Mallapuram Kerala Malayalam
24 Langpi Dehangi Rural Bank Diphu Assam Assamese, Bengali, Bodo
25 Madhya Bihar Gramin Bank Patna Bihar Hindi
26 Madhyanchal Gramin Bank Sagar Madhya Pradesh Hindi
27 Maharashtra Gramin Bank Aurangabad Maharashtra Marathi
28 Malwa Gramin Bank Sangrur Punjab Punjabi
29 Manipur Rural Bank Imphal Manipur Manipuri
30 Meghalaya Rural Bank Shillong Meghalaya Khasi, Garo
31 Mizoram Rural Bank Aizawl Mizoram Mizo
32 Nagaland Rural Bank Kohima Nagaland English
33 Narmada Jhabua Gramin Bank Indore Madhya Pradesh Hindi
34 Odisha Gramya Bank Bhubaneshwar Odisha Odia
35 Pallavan Grama Bank Salem Tamil Nadu Tamil
36 Pandyan Grama Bank Virudhunagar Tamil Nadu Tamil
37 Paschim Banga Gramin Bank Howrah West Bengal Bengali
38 Pragathi Krishna Gramin Bank Bellary Karnataka Kannada
39 Prathama Bank Moradabad Uttar Pradesh Hindi
40 Puduvai Bharthiar Grama Bank Puducherry Puducherry Tamil, Malayalam, Telugu
41 Punjab Gramin Bank Kapurthala Punjab Punjabi
42 Purvanchal Bank Gorakhpur Uttar Pradesh Hindi
43 Rajasthan Marudhara Gramin Bank Jodhpur Rajasthan Hindi
44 Saptagiri Grameena Bank Chittor Andhra Pradesh Telugu
45 Sarva Haryana Gramin Bank Rohtak Haryana Hindi
46 Sarva UP Gramin Bank Meerut Uttar Pradesh Hindi
47 Saurashtra Gramin Bank Rajkot Gujarat Gujarati
48 Sutlej Gramin Bank Bhatinda Punjab Punjabi
49 Telangana Grameena Bank Hyderabad Telangana Telugu, Urdu
50 Tripura Gramin Bank Agartala Tripura Bengali, Kokborak
51 Utkal Grameen Bank Bolangir Odisha Odia
52 Uttarbanga Kshetriya Gramin Bank Coochbehar West Bengal Bengali, Nepali
53 Uttar Bihar Gramin Bank Muzaffarpur Bihar Hindi
54 Uttarakhand Gramin Bank Dehradun Uttarakhand Hindi, Sanskrit
55 Vananchal Gramin Bank Dumka Jharkhand Hindi
56 Vidharbha Konkan Gramin Bank Nagpur Maharashtra Marathi

EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS & EXPERIENCE (as on the last date of Online Registration i.e. 28.07.2015):

Post Educational Qualification Experience
Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Degree in any discipline from a recognized University or its equivalent

(a) Essential: Proficiency in locallanguage as prescribed by the participating RRB/s *
(b) Desirable: Knowledge of Computer skills.

--
Officer Scale-I i. Degree in any discipline from a recognized University or its equivalent Preference will be given to the candidates having degree in
Agriculture, Horticulture, Forestry, Animal Husbandry, Veterinary Science, Agricultural Engineering, Pisciculture, Agricultural Marketing and Cooperation, Information Technology, Management, Law, Economics and Accountancy;

ii. Proficiency inlocal languageas prescribed by the participating RRB/s *
iii Computer knowledge or awareness will be an added qualification.

--
Officer Scale-II General Banking Officer Degree in any discipline from a recognized University or its equivalent with a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate. Preference will be given to the candidates having degree in Banking, Finance, Marketing, Agriculture, Horticulture, Forestry, Animal Husbandry, Veterinary Science,
Agricultural Engineering, Pisciculture, Agricultural Marketing and Cooperation, Information Technology, Management, Law, Economics and Accountancy.
Two years as an officer in a Bank or Financial Institution.
Officer Scale-II Specialist Officers Information Technology Officer Degree from a recognised University in Electronics / Communication / Computer Science / Information Technology or its equivalent with a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate.

Desirable: Certificate in ASP, PHP, C++, Java, VB, VC, OCP etc.

One year
Chartered Accountant Certified Associate (CA) from Institute of Chartered Accountants of India One year
Law Officer Degree from a recognised University in Law or its equivalent with a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate. Two years as an advocate or should have worked as Law Officer in Banks or Financial Institutions for a period not less than two years
Treasury Manager Certified Associate (CA) from Institute of Chartered Accountants of India or MBA in Finance from a recognized university/ institution One Year
Marketing Officer MBA in Marketing from a recognized university One Year
Agricultural Officer Degree in Agriculture/ Horticulture/ Dairy/ Animal Husbandry/ Forestry/ Veterinary Science/ Agricultural Engineering/ Pisciculture from a recognized university or its equivalent with a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate Two Years
Officer Scale-III Degree in any discipline from a recognized University or its equivalent with a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate. Preference will be given to the candidates having Degree/ Diploma in Banking, Finance, Marketing, Agriculture, Horticulture, Forestry, Animal Husbandry, Veterinary Science, Agricultural Engineering, Pisciculture, Agricultural Marketing and Co-operation, Information Technology, Management, Law, Economics and Accountancy. Minimum 5 years experience as an
Officer in a Bank or Financial Institutions

Age (As on 01.07.2015)

  • For Officer Scale- III- Above 21 years - Below 40 years i.e. candidates should not have been born earlier than 03.07.1975 and later than 30.06.1994 (both dates inclusive)
  • For Officer Scale- II- Above 21 years - Below 32 years i.e. candidates should not have been born earlier than 03.07.1983 and later than 30.06.1994 (both dates inclusive)
  • For Officer Scale- I- Above 18 years - Below 30 years i.e. candidates should not have been born earlier than 03.07.1985 and later than 30.06.1997 (both dates inclusive)
  • For Office Assistant (Multipurpose) - Between 18 years and 28 years i.e. candidates should have not been born earlier than 02.07.1987 and later than 01.07.1997 (both dates inclusive)

*Local Language Proficiency -The candidates applying for the posts of Officer Scale I and Office Assistants – (Multipurpose) will be able to register their preference only to such RRBs if they possess the proficiency in the local language as prescribed against the name of the RRB in this advertisement. (The condition does not apply for the posts of Officer Scale II and III).

APPLICATION FEE:

Application Fees/ Intimation Charges (Online payment from 08.07.2015 to 28.07.2015both dates inclusive) Officer (Scale I, II & III)

  • Rs. 100/- for SC/ST/PWD candidates.
  • Rs. 600/- for all others

Office Assistant (Multipurpose)

  • Rs. 100/- for SC/ST/PWD/EXSM candidates.
  • Rs. 600/- for all others

HOW TO APPLY

A candidate can apply for the Post of Office Assistant (Multipurpose) and can also apply for the Post of Officer. However a candidate can apply for only one post in officer’s cadre i.e. for Officer Scale-I or ScaleII or Scale-III.

Candidates have to apply separately and pay fees / intimation chargesseparately for each post. Candidates can apply online only from 08.07.2015 to 28.07.2015 and no other mode of application will be accepted.

Important Dates:

  • On-line registration including Edit/Modification of Application by candidates 08.07.2015 to 28.07.2015
  • Payment of Application Fees/Intimation Charges (Online) 08.07.2015 to 28.07.2015
  • Download of call letters for Pre- Exam Training for Officer Scale-I After 17.08.2015
  • Conduct of Pre-Exam Training for Officer Scale-I 24.08.2015 to 29.08.2015
  • Download of call letters for Pre- Exam Training for Office Assistant After 24.08.2015
  • Conduct of Pre-Exam Training for Office Assistant 31.08.2015 to 05.09.2015
  • Download of call letters for online examination After 19.08.2015
  • Online Examination September, 2015
  • Declaration of Result October 2015
  • Download of call letters for interview November 2015
  • Conduct of interview November/December 2015
  • Provisional Allotment January 2016

Click Here for Official Notification

Courtesy: IBPS

(Syllabus) IBPS-RRB Examination

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Recruitment in Officers (Scale-I, II & III) & Office Assistants (Multipurpose) in Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)

Syllabus

ONLINE EXAMINATION STRUCTURE:

Office Assistant (Multipurpose)

Name of Tests (Objective)  No. of Questions  Maximum Marks  Duration
Reasoning 40 50 Composite
Time of 2 Hours

 

Quantitative Aptitude 40 50
General Awareness 40 40
English Language 40 40
Hindi Language 40 40
Computer Knowledge  40 20
Total 200 200

Officer Scale-I

Name of Tests (Objective)  No. of Questions  Maximum Marks  Duration
Reasoning 40 50 Composite
Time of 2 Hours
30 minutes

 

Quantitative Aptitude 40 50
General Awareness 40 40
English Language 40 40
Hindi Language 40 40
Computer Knowledge  40 20
Total 200 200

Officer Scale-II (General Banking Officer)

Name of Tests (Objective)  No. of Questions  Maximum Marks  Duration
Reasoning 40 50 Composite
Time of 2 Hours

 

Quantitative Aptitude &
Data Interpretation
40 50
Financial Awareness 40 40
English Language 40 40
Hindi Language 40 40
Computer Knowledge  40 20
Total 200 200

Officer Scale-II (Specialist Cadre)

Name of Tests (Objective)  No. of Questions  Maximum Marks  Duration
Reasoning 40 40 Composite Time
of 2 hours
Quantitative Aptitude &
Data Interpretation
40 40
Financial Awareness 40 40
English Language 40 20
Hindi Language 40 20
Computer Knowledge 40 20
Professional Knowledge  40 40
Total 200 200

Officer Scale- III

Name of Tests (Objective)  No. of Questions  Maximum Marks  Duration
Reasoning 40 50 Composite
Time of 2 Hours
Quantitative Aptitude &
Data Interpretation
40 50
Financial Awareness 40 40
English Language 40 40
Hindi Language 40 40
Computer Knowledge  40 20
Total 200 200

Candidates can opt either 4 a or 4 b.

Other detailed information regarding the online examination will be given in an Information Handout, on IBPS website which will be made available for the candidates to download along with the call letter.

Courtesy: ibps.com

(Notification) RBI: Recruitment for the post of Assistant - 2015

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(Notification) RBI: Recruitment for the post of Assistant - 2015

The Reserve Bank of India invites applications from eligible candidates for 504 posts of “Assistant” in various offices of the Bank. Selection for the post will be through a country-wide competitive Online Examination and Interview.

Office Vacancies PWD # EXS #
SC ST OBC GEN Total VI HI OH EX-1 EX-2
Ahmedabad 0 8 7 15 30 0 1 0 1 3
Bangalore 6 3 11 20 40 0 1 1 2 4
Bhopal 2 1 2 5 10 0 0 0 0 1
Bhubaneswar 3 5 2 10 20 1 0 0 1 2
Chandigarh 9 0 8 18 35 0 1 0 2 4
Chennai 6 1(1) 7 17 31 0 1 0 1 3
Guwahati 1 3 1 5 10 1 0 0 0 1
Hyderabad 5 2 8 15 30 0 0 1 1 3
Jaipur 5 4 6 15 30 1 0 0 1 3
Jammu 0 1 3 6 10 0 0 1 0 1
Kanpur &Lucknow 8 0 12 20 40 0 0 1 2 4
Kolkata 7 2 6 15 30 0 1 0 1 3
Mumbai 19 11(1) 11 40 81 1 0 1 4 8
Nagpur 0 0 0 25 25 1 0 0 1 3
New Delhi 5 0 9(2) 13 27 0 0 0 1 3
Patna 4 2 6 13 25 0 1 0 1 3
Thiruvananthapuram & Kochi 3 0 0 27 30 1 0 0 1 3
Total 83 43 99 279 504 6 6 5 20 5

Pay Scale:

Selected Candidates will draw a starting basic pay of ₹ 8,860/- per month (i.e. ₹ 8,040/- plus two advance increments admissible to graduates only) in the scale of ₹ 8,040 – 410 – 9270 – 500 – 11,270 – 550 – 13,470 – 650 – 15,420 – 720 – 16,140 – 990 – 20,100 (20 years) and other allowances, viz. Dearness Allowance, House Rent Allowance, City Compensatory Allowance, Transport Allowance etc., as admissible from time to time. At present, initial monthly Gross emoluments for Assistants is approximately ₹ 24,429/-

Educational Qualifications (as on 03.07.2015):

i) At least a Bachelor’s Degree in any discipline with a minimum of 50% marks (pass class for SC/ST/PWD candidates) in the aggregate and the knowledge of word processing on PC.

ii) A candidate belonging to Ex-servicemen category (except dependants of ex-servicemen) should either be a graduate from a recognized University or should have passed the matriculation or its equivalent examination of the Armed Forces and rendered at least 15 years of defence service.

iii) Candidates applying for post in a particular recruiting office should be proficient in the language (i.e. know to read, write, speak and understand the language) of the state/ any of the states falling under the recruiting office.

Age (as on 01.06.2015)

Between 18 and 28 years. Candidates must have been born not earlier than 02/06/1987 and not later than 01/06/1997 (both days including) are only eligible to apply.

Scheme of Selection:

Selection will be through Online Examination and Interview. The Online Examination will be for 200 marks

Sr. No. Name of Tests (Objective) No of Questions Maximum Marks Total Time
1 Test of Reasoning 40 40 2 Hours
2 Test of English Language 40 40
3 Test of Numerical Ability 40 40
4 Test of General Awareness 40 40
5 Test of Computer Knowledge 40 40

Total

200 200

Application Fees/ Intimation Charges (Non- Refundable)

Payable from 12.06.2015 to 03.07.2015 (Online payment)

  • 50/- for SC/ST/PWD/EXS. (Intimation Charges)
  • 450 /- for OBC/General candidates (Examination fee+ Intimation Charges)

Staff candidates are exempted from payment of examination fee and intimation charges.

Bank Transaction charges for Online Payment of application fees/intimation charges will have to be borne by the candidate.

HOW TO APPLY

  • Candidates to go to the RBI website www.rbi.org.in and click on the option "APPLY ONLINE" which will open a new screen.
  • To register application, choose the tab "Click here for New Registration" and enter Name, Contact details and Email-id. A Provisional Registration Number and Password will be generated by the system and displayed on the screen. Candidate should note down the Provisional Registration Number and Password. An Email & SMS indicating the Provisional Registration number and Password will also be sent.
  • In case the candidate is unable to complete the application form in one go, he / she can save the data already entered by choosing "SAVE AND NEXT" tab. Prior to submission of the online application candidates are advised to use the "SAVE AND NEXT" facility to verify the details in the online application form and modify the same if required. Visually Impaired candidates should fill the application form carefully and verify/ get the details verified to ensure that the same are correct prior to final submission.
  • Candidates are advised to carefully fill and verify the details filled in the online application themselves as no change will be possible/ entertained after clicking the FINAL SUBMIT BUTTON.
  • The Name of the candidate or his /her Father/ Husband etc. should be spelt correctly in the application as it appears in the Certificates/ Mark sheets/Identity proof. Any change/alteration found may disqualify the candidature.
  • Validate your details and Save your application by clicking the 'Validate your details' and 'Save & Next' button.
  • Candidates can proceed to upload Photo & Signature as per the specifications given in the Guidelines for Scanning and Upload of Photograph and Signature.
  • Candidates can proceed to fill other details of the Application Form.
  • Click on the Preview Tab to preview and verify the entire application form before FINAL SUBMIT.
  • Modify details, if required, and click on 'FINAL SUBMIT' ONLY after verifying and ensuring that the photograph, signature uploaded and other details filled by you are correct.
  • Click on 'Payment' Tab and proceed for payment.
  • Click on 'Submit' button.

Important Dates:

  • Website Link Open 12.06.2015 to 03.07.2015
  • Payment of Examination Fees (Online) 12.06.2015 to 03.07.2015
  • Schedule of Online Test (Tentative) Various dates in August 2015.Likely to be held on August 1, 8, 9 and 16. However RBI reserves the right to change the dates of examination.

Click Here for Official Notification

Click Here to Apply Online

Courtesy: RBI

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (18 June 2015)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (18 June 2015)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1. Currently who is the Chief Economic Adviser of India?

1.Arvind Pangadiya
2.Kaushik Basu
3. Arvind Subramanian
4.Arvind Mayaram

Q.2. Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI) is a

1. self regulatory body
2.constitutional body
3.legal body
4.advisory body

Q.3. G-20 is a grouping of

1.developed countries
2.Asian countries
3. emerging economies countries
4.african countries

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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Click Here to Join Online Course for IBPS Exam

Click Here to Buy Study-Kit for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here For Archive


 

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (17 June 2015)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (17 June 2015)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q.1. Gold jewellery accounts for of Indian gem and jewellery exports

1. 40 %
2. 30 %
3. 27%
4. 43%

Q.2. Asian Development Bank’s headquarter is situated at

1. Tokyo
2. Manila
3. New Delhi
4. Jakarta

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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Click Here to Join Online Course for IBPS Exam

Click Here to Buy Study-Kit for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here For Archive


 

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (16 June 2015)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (16 June 2015)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


Q 1. ----- is the rate which government buys grain from farmers

1.Minimum Support Price.
2.Buffer Price
3.Contigent Price
4.None of these

Q 2. According to the new data release by Boston Consulting Group’s Global Wealth 2015, India has the ------- largest Ultra-Net-Worth-Household

1.2nd
2.5th
3.4th
4. 7th

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

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(Notification) Recruitment of 500 Executive at IDBI Bank - 2015 "ADVERTISEMENT NO. 3/2015-16"

(Jobs) Recruitment of 500 Executive at IDBI Bank - 2015 "ADVERTISEMENT NO. 3/2015-16"

IDBI Bank Ltd., a banking company under the Companies Act, 1956, having majority share holding by Government of India, is a leading provider of complete range of retail and corporate banking services to its clients. The Bank is aggressively expanding its operations.

IDBI Bank has entered into a MoU with Manipal Global Education Services Private Limited, to provide training in Banking and Finance to prospective candidates aspiring to join IDBI Bank as Assistant Manager Grade ‘A’. The Bank invites applications from young, dynamic graduates for admissions in IDBI Manipal School of Banking, Bangalore for 1 year Post Graduate Diploma in Banking and Finance (PGDBF). After successful completion of the course, the candidates will be awarded PGDBF from Manipal University and will be inducted into IDBI Bank as Assistant Manager Grade ‘A’.

Job Details:

Post Name Essential Qualification Maximum Age as on Cut-off date Tentative Date of Written Test Vacancies
Executive Graduation from a recognised University 28 years* 02.08.2015** 500**

Age (As on June 1, 2015):

Minimum: 20 years, Maximum: 28 years i.e. a candidate must have been born not earlier than 02.06.1987 and not later than 01.06.1995 (both dates inclusive)

Application Fee And Postage Charges

Application Fees/ Intimation Charges (Payable from 10.06.2015 to 24.06.2015 (both dates inclusive)

  • 150/- for SC/ST/PWD candidates
  • 700/- for all others Bank Transaction charges / convenience charges for Online Payment of fees/ intimation charges will have to be borne by the candidate

Selection Process

a. The selection process will comprise of Online Test followed by personal interview of the candidates, who have qualified in the online test. The Online Test will be Objective in nature. The details of the same are furnished hereunder.

S. No Name of the Test No. Of Questions Maximum Marks Duration
1 Reasoning 50 50 Composite time of 2 hours
2 English Language 50 50
3 Quantitative Aptitude 50 50
4 General Awareness (With Special Reference to Banking) 50 50

Exam Centre:

The online test would be held at the following centers viz. Ahmedabad, Amritsar, Bhopal, Bengaluru, Belgaum, Bhubaneswar, Coimbatore, Chennai, Chandigarh, Guwahati, Gwalior, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Kanpur, Kolkata, Kochi, Lucknow, Madurai, Mangalore, Mumbai, Nagpur, New Delhi, Patna, Pune, Raipur, Rajkot, Ranchi, Thiruvananthapuram, Vijayawada and Vishakhapatnam.

Programme Fees:

Programme fees for this Course will be Rs. 3,50,000/- (Rs. Three lakh fifty thousand only) plus service taxes, as applicable to be paid by the students in instalments as per a fixed schedule during the 1 year programme (all inclusive of boarding, lodging and course fees, other fees, etc.).

Apart from the above course fees, the exam fees for undergoing various Certification exams as mandated under the course will have to be borne additionally by the candidates, as per the fees charged by respective body/organizations from time to time for conducting these Certification exams.

HOW TO APPLY:-

DETAILED GUIDELINES/PROCEDURES FOR

A. APPLICATION REGISTRATION
B. PAYMENT OF FEES

Candidates to go to the Bank’s website www.idbi.com and click on the ‘CAREERS’ to open the link “Online application for Admissions to IDBI Manipal School of Banking” and then click on the option “APPLY ONLINE” which will open a new screen.

Important Dates:

  • Opening and closing of payment Gateway 10.06.2015 to 24.06.2015
  • Opening and closing of gateway for submission of on-line application 10.06.2015 to 24.06.2015
  • Date of Online Test at all centers 02.08.2015

Click Here for Official Notification

Click Here to Apply Online

Courtesy: IDBI

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