Blogs

(Marks) SBI Associate Clerk "Online Test held in January / February 2015"

http://www.bankpoclerk.com/community/sites/default/files/SBI-ASSOCIATE-CLERK-LOGO.jpeg

(Marks) SBI Associate Clerk "Online Test held in January / February 2015"

Exam Name: Clerk

Bank Name: SBI Associate Banks

Year: 2015

Click Here for Marks

Courtesy: SBI

(Paper) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - English Language" (South Zone)

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2011

Subject: English Language

Directions (1-15): Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Though the U.S. prides itself on being a leader in the world community a recent report shows that it lags far behind other industrialised countries in meeting the needs of its youngest and most vulnerable citizens. The U.S. has a higher infant mortality rate a higher proportion of low birth weight babies, a smaller proportion of babies immunized against childhood diseases and a much higher rate of adolescent pregnancies. These findings described as a “quiet crisis” requiring immediate and far-reaching action appeared in a report prepared by a task force of educators. Doctors, politicians and business people. According to the report, a fourth of the nation’s 12 million infants and toddlers live in poverty. As many as half confront risk factors that could harm their ability to develop intellectually physically and socially. Child immolations are too low more children are born into poverty more are in substandard care while their parents work and more are being raised by single parents. When taken together these and other risk factors can lead to educational and health problems that are much harder and more costly to reverse.
The crisis begins in the womb with unplanned parenthood. Women with unplanned pregnancies are less likely to seek pre-natal care. In the U.S. 80% of teenage pregnancies and 56% of all pregnancies are unplanned. The problems continue after birth where unplanned pregnancies and unstable partnerships often go hand in hand since 1950, the number of single parent families has nearly tripled. More than 25 per cent of all births today are to unmarried mothers. As the number of single parent families grows and more women enter the work force infants and toddlers are increasingly in the care of people other than their parents.

Most disturbingly recent statistics show that American parents are increasingly neglecting or abusing their children. In only four years from 1987-1991 the number of children in foster care increased by over 50 per cent. Babies under the age of one are the fastest growing category of children entering foster care. This crisis affects children under the age of three most severely the report says. Yet it is this period-from Infancy through preschool years-that sets the stage for a child’s future.

1. The main focus of the passage is on the plight of

(1) orphaned children
(2) teenage mothers
(3) low birth weight babies
(4) unwed mother
(5) None of these

2. Children failing in which age group are most severely affected by the ‘quiet crisis’?


(1) Below 1 year
(2) Below 3 year
(3) Below 3 years
(4) Between 2 and 3 years
(5) None of these


3. Which of the following does not constitute the ‘quiet crisis’ in the U.S. as per the task force report?


(1) Lower proportion of new born babies with normal weight
(2) Higher incidence of adolescent girls becoming mothers
(3) Lower rate of babies surviving childhood diseases
(4) Larger proportion of babies who are deprived of immunization
(5) Increasing cases of teenage couples getting divorced


4. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage?


(1) The number of single-parent families today is approximately three times that four decades ago.
(2) The number of children in the U.S. entering foster care has decreased after 1991.
(3) In the U.S. the number of infants living in poverty is about 3 million.
(4) Only 20 per cent of all the pregnancies in the U.S. are planned.
(5) About 6 million infants in the U.S. are likely to develop educational and health problems.


5. The number of children born to married mothers in the U.S. is approximately how many times the number of children born to unwed mothers?

 
(1) 1.5 times
(2) 2 times
(3) 3 times
(4) 3.5 times
(5) Not mentioned in the passage


6. Children born out of unplanned pregnancies are highly vulnerable because


(1) they are raised by single parents.
(2) their parents are mostly poor.
(3) they are mostly malnourished.
(4) they are less likely to receive prenatal care.
(5) their parents are emotionally immature.

 
7. Decide which of the following factors is/ are responsible for the physical, intellectual and social under-development of infants in the U.S.?

A. Illiteracy of parents
B. Lack of parental care
C. Poverty

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Both A and C
(5) Both Band C


8. An increasing number of infants in the U.S. are in foster care on account of


(1) an increasing number of single parent families with the female member working
(2) an increasing number of women maintaining the status of unwed motherhood and becoming economically independent
(3) an increasing number of employed couples who are required to stay apart
(4) an increasing number of women getting divorced and abandoning their babies
(5) an increasing number of parents who lack awareness about baby-care


9. The task force report seems to be based on the data pertaining to the period


(1) 1987-91
(2) 1950 onwards till data
(3) 1987 onwards till data
(4) 1950-91
(5) 1991 onwards till date

 
Directions (60-62): Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the given word as used in the passage.

 
10. CONFRONT


(1) Face
(2) Tolerate
(3) Succumb
(4) Eliminate
(5) Oppose


11. VULNERABLE


(1) Insecure
(2) Indispensable
(3) Risky
(4) Promising
(5) Challenging


12. ABUSING


(1) Cursing
(2) Beating
(3) III treating
(4) Accusing
(5) Oppressing

Direction (63-615): Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the given word as used in the passage.

13. SEVERELY

(1) Drastically
(2) Intensely
(3) Minutely
(4) Normally
(5) Slightly


14. UNSTABLE

 
(1) Changing
(2) Steady
(3) Stagnant
(4) Confined
(5) Accelerating


15. SUBSTANDARD


(1) Impoverished
(2) Compassionate
(3) Excellent
(4) Valuable
(5) Beneficial


Directions (16-20): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

 
16.

Another advantage (1)/ is that technology (2)/ can be quickly (3)/ adapted (4)/ to the client’s needs. All correct (5)

17.

It freed me to enter (1)/ one of the most (2)/ creatively (3)/ periods (4)/ of my life. All correct (5) .

18.

 About 4,500 private (1)/ and 2000 government hospitols (2)/ are empanelled (3)/ under the scheme. (4)/ All correct (5)

19.

 More often (1)/ then (2)/ not we feel concerned (3)/ with the development around (4)/ us. All correct (5)

20.

 Software (1) / makers in India are facing (2)/ a huge (3)/ pressure. (4)/ All correct (5)

Directions (21-25): In each of these questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer. 


21. I. The truck stopped _ .
II. We take a _ walk every day.

 
(1) suddenly 
(2) long
(3) short
(4) distant
(5) near

 
22. I. I got the grains _ in the machine,
II. I do not have any _ for doubting him.


(1) done
(2) basis
(3) ground
(4) crushed
(5) tune

 
23. I. We were asked to design a___ of the dam.
II. This Institute is a ____ of modern thinking.


(1) picture
(2) type
(3) function
(4) fabric
(5) model


24. I. Keep a _ grip on the railing.
II. He was _ asleep.


(1) fast
(2) firm
(3) deep
(4) strong
(5) sure


25. I. He asked me to ___ over the fence.
II. We should keep the valuables in the ____ .

 
(1) vault
(2) cross
(3) safe
(4) tie
(5) locker
 
Directions (26-30): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (5) as the answer.


26. Most of time, strangers have helped me in critical situations.


(1) Many a time
(2) At time
(3) More of time
(4) At odd period
(5) No correction required


27. The reality is that India needs a strong, efficient and competitive aviation sector.


(1) what India needs
(2) that India need
(3) therefore India need
(4) needs India
(5) No correction required


28. I have known this industry since the last two decades.


(1) since last two decade
(2) ever since the last two decades
(3) for the last two decades
(4) from the last two decades
(5) No correction required


29. Today’s children have far most knowledge and far less patience compared to our generation.


(1) much most knowledge
(2) far most knowledgeable
(3) by far higher knowledge
(4) far more knowledge
(5) No correction required


30. Of late, Bonsai trees have attracted the attention of one and all.

 
(1) some and all
(2) many and all
(3) everyone and all
(4) none and all
(5) No correction required


Directions (31-40): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number of the part with error as your answer. If there is no error, mark (5).


31.

 All companies must (1)/ send its annual report to (2) / its share- holders twenty-one days (3)/ before the Annual General Body Meeting.(4)/ No error (5)


32.

 To be an effective manager (1)/ it is vital to (2) / know the goals and vision (3) / of your organization. (4)/ No error (5).


33.

 His aim is (1)/ provided cheap and (2)/ reliable internet facilities (3)/ to every village within five years. (4)/ No error (5).


34.

 Bank notes have (1) / many special features so (2) / that bank staff can (3)/ easier identity fake notes.(4) / No error (5).


35.

 According to the Census Bureau, (1)/ India will have (2)/ a more population (3)/ than China by 2025. (4)/ No error (5).


36.

 The state government has (1)/ issued licences to farmers (2)/ allowing them to sell (3)/ its vegetables to hotels. (4)/ No error (5)


37.

 Many people decide (1)/ not to buy a car (2)/ last Diwali because of (3)/ the high price of petrol last year. (4) No error (5).


38.

 We plan to (1)/ sell part of our (2)/ business therefore we have (3)/ to repay a loan. (4)/ No error (5)


39.

 The Reserve Bank of India is (1)/ the only central bank in (2)/ Asia which have (3)/ raised interest rates in September. (4) No error (5)

 
40.

 Under this scheme, (1)/ insurance companies will reimburse (2) / any expenditure on medicines (3)/ if you submitting the original bills. (4)/ No error (5).


Directions (41-50): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.


Today experts all over the world are of the opinion that agriculture will affect the future of the world.
The world has a serious food (41) and the only way to solve (42) is If more people take up (43). Moreover since the 1980s, technology and finance job (44) been the basis of America’s economy. (45) in recent times, fanners’ incomes have risen (46) It has also been a long time (47) fanning was a major source of employment, but data (49) that unemployment in America is (49) in states where farming is the (50) occupation.
As the demand for food is rising what the world needs today is more fanners.

 
41.

(1) trouble
(2) Problem
(3) doubt
(4) discussion
(5) production


42.

(1) how
(2) usually
(3) it
(4) these
(5) which

 
43.

(1) farming
(2) time
(3) matter
(4) offer
(5) job


44.

 
(1) also
(2) has
(3) not
(4) have
(5) were


45.

(1) However
(2) Instead
(3) Despite
(4) Again
(5) Still


46.

 
(1) much
(2) up
(3) above
(4) sharpy
(5) highly


47.

 
(1) when
(2) since
(3) while
(4) as
(5) after

 
48.

(1) collected
(2) informs
(3) calculate
(4) aanlysed
(5) show


49.


(1) lowest
(2) smaller
(3) decreased
(4) important
(5) not


50.

 
(1) mostly
(2) best
(3) suitable
(4) Supperior
(5) main

<<Go Back To Main Page

(Papers) IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper "Held on 27-11-2011, 1st Sitting - Reasoning" (South Zone)

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Exam Paper - 2011

Subject: Reasoning

1. The positions of how many digits in the number 523169 will remain unchanged if the digits within the number are written in ascending order? (from left to right)

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four

2. In a certain code ‘BUILD’ is written as ‘5#31@’ and ‘LIKES’ is written as ‘13©*8’. How is ‘SKID’ written in that code?

(1) 8©*@
(2) 8@3©
(3) 8©3@
(4) 83©@
(5) None of these

3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘DAREDEVIL’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? (in both forward and backward directions)

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

4. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, the third, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word STEADFAST, which of the following will be the second letter of that word? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y as the answer.

(1) E
(2) A
(3) T
(4) X
(5) Y

5. In a certain code ’TASK’ is written as ‘BUJR’ and ‘BIND’ is written as ‘JCCM’. How is ‘SUIT written in that code?

(1) VTSH
(2) VSTH
(3) TRUJ
(4) TRJU
(5) None of these

Directions (6-10): In the following questions, the symbols ,*,$,@ and © are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’.
‘A B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’.
‘A © B’ means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B’.
‘A * B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’.
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true,
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true,
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true,
Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true,
Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II are true.

6. Statements:

W $ F, F R, R * M

Conclusions:

I. R * W
II. R $ W

7. Statements’:

V T, T@N, N $ J

Conclusions:

I. J * T
II. N * V

8. Statements:

K © R, R M, M * F

Conclusions:

I. F @ R
II. K * M

9. Statements:

B @ J, J * H, H © N

Conclusions:

I. N @ J
II. N @ B

10. Statements:

T * K, K © M, M D

Conclusions:

I. D K
II. M @ T

Directions (11-15): Study the following arrangement of numbers, letters and symbols carefully and answer the questions given below:

R 4 $ M E 7 T # A 2 J @ U K 9 P I % 1 8 Q W 3 d Z 5 * N 6 F © V G

11. Which of the following should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the elements in the above arrangement?

M$7 A#J KU P ?

(l) 1 % W
(2) 11 Q
(3) 1 I W
(4) 1 %Q
(5) None of these

12. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a vowel?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Four

13. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a consonant but not, immediately preceded by a letter?

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

14. If the positions of twenty-five elements from the right end are reversed, which of the following will be the sixteenth element from the left end?

(1) Z
(2) P
(3) W
(4) Q
(5) None of these

15. Which of the following is the eighth to the left of the twenty- third element from the left end of the above arrangement?

(1) 9
(2) I
(3) $
(4) ©
(5) None of these

Directions (16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

P, Q, A, B, D, Rand F are sitting around a circular table [acing the centre. R is not second to the left of D and D is not an immediate neighbour of B, A is third to the right of F. B is second to the left of F. Q is not an immediate neighbour of B or F.

16. Who is second to the right of P ?

(1) R
(2) Q
(3) D
(4) A
(5) Data inadequate

17. Who is to the immediate left of F?

(1) R
(2) P
(3) D
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

18. Who is to the immediate right of D?

(1) Q
(2) A
(3) F
(4) P
(5) None of these

19. What is D’s position with respect to B ?

(1) Second to the right
(2) Third to the left
(3) Second to the left
(4) Fourth to the right
(5) Third to the right

20. Who is to the immediate right of Q?

(1) D
(2) R
(3) A
(4) B
(5) None of these

Directions (21-25): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Give answer (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question, and
Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

21. Who among P, Q, R. S and T, each having a different age, is definitely the youngest?

I. R is younger than only T and P.
II. Q is younger than T but not the youngest.

22. Towards which direction was Q facing after he stopped walking?

I. Q walked 30 metres towards West, took a left turn and walked 20 metres. He again took a left turn and stopped after walking 30 metres,
II. Q walked 30 metres towards East, took a right turn and walked 20 metres and he took a left turn and stopped after walking 30 metres.

23. How is ‘always’ written in a code language?

I. ‘rain is always good’ is written as ‘5 3 9 7 in that code language.
II. ‘he is always there’ is written as ‘3 6 8 5’ in that code language.

24. How is M related to D?

I. M has only one son and two daughters.
II. D’s brother is son of M’s wife:

25. On which date in April is definitely Pravm’s mother’s birthday?

I. Pravin correctly remembers that his mother’s birthday is after fourteenth but before nineteenth of April.
II. Pravin’s sister correctly remembers that their mother’s birthday is after sixteenth but before twenty-first of April.

Directions (26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Following are the conditions for selecting a Marketing Manager in an organisation:

The candidate must ______
(i) be at least 25 years and not more than 35 years old as on 01.12.2011.
(ii) be a graduate In any discipline with at least 55% aggregate marks.
(iii) have completed Post Graduate Degree/Diploma in Management with specialization in Marketing Management with at least 60% marks.
(iv) have post qualification work experience of at least 5 years as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organization.
In the case of a candidate who fulfills all the conditions except ______

(a) at (ii) above, but has secured at least 50% in graduation and at least 65% in Post Graduate Degree/Diploma in Management with specialisation in Marketing Management his/her case is to be referred to Head- Marketing.
(b) at (i) above, but is not more than 40 years old and has work experience of 8 years as Assistant Marketing Manager, his/her case is to be referred to Managing Director.
In each question below, details of one candidate are provided. You have to take one of the following courses of actions based on the conditions given above and the information provided in each question and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01-12-2011.

Mark answer (1) if the data provided are inadequate to take a decision.
Mark answer (2) if the candidate is not to be selected.
Mark answer (3) if the candidate is to be selected.
Mark answer (4) if the case is to be referred to Head-Marketing.
Mark answer (5) if the case is to be referred to Managing Director.

Now read the information provided in each question and mark your answer accordingly.

26. Mansi was born on 8th March 1982. She has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organization for the past six years after completing her Post Graduate Degree in Management with specialisation in Marketing Management with 70% marks. She has secured 53% marks in B.Com.

27. Manoj was born on 24th July 1980. He has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past seven years after completing his Post Graduate diploma in marketing management with 60% marks. He has secured 54% marks in graduation.

28. Rajat has secured 59% marks in graduation and has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past seven years after completing his Post Graduate Diploma in Management with specialization in Marketing Management. He was born on 15th February 198l.

29. Tarun was born on 2nd January 1978. He has secured 58% marks in B.Sc. and 65% marks in Post Graduate Degree in Marketing Management. He has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organization for the past six years after completing his post graduation.

30. Mohini has secured 60% marks in graduation. She has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager in an organisation for the past nine years after completing her Post Graduate degree in marketing management with 65% marks. She was born on 18th August 1972.

Directions (31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E, F and G study in Standard IV, V and VI with at least two in any of these Standards. Each one of them has a favourite (likes) colour, viz. black, red, yellow, green, white, blue and pink not necessarily in the same order.

B likes yellow and does not study in Standard VI. The one who likes black studies in the same Standard as E, C likes blue and studies in the same Standard as G. D studies in Standard V only with the one who likes pink. G does not study either in Standard V or VI. F does not like black. G does not like either green or white. D does not like green. E does not like pink.

31. Who likes white?

(1) A
(2) G
(3) D
(4) F
(5) None of these

32. Which of the following combinations is correct?

(1) A- Black - V
(2) D - White - IV
(3) B - Red - IV
(4) C - Blue - IV
(5) All are correct

33. What is A’s favourite colour?

(1) Red
(2) Black
(3) White
(4) Black or White
(5) None of these

34. Which of the following students study in Standard IV?

(1) BC
(2) BG
(3) BCD
(4) BCG
(5) None of these

35. Who likes red?

(1) G
(2) D
(3) A
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to lake the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II follows.
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.

36. Statements:

All cards are sheets.
All files are cards.

Conclusions:

I. All cards are files.
II. All files are sheets.

37. Statements:

Some questions are answers.
All questions are issues.

Conclusions:

I. At least some answers are issues.
II. Some answers are definitely not questions.

38. Statements:

All roads are streets.
No road is a highway.

Conclusions:

I. No highway is street.
II. All streets are roads.

39. Statements:

No book is library. ,
Some books are diaries.

Conclusions:

I. Atleast some libraries are diaries.
II. No diary is library.

40. Statements :

No pin is a clip.
All pins are fans.

Conclusions:

I. All fans are pins.
II. No clip is fan.

Directions (41 -50): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

 

<<Go Back To Main Page

 

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (28 July 2015)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (28 July 2015)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


1.who has appointed the new chairman of TRAI

1. R.S.Sharma
2. Sindhushree khullar
3. R.S.Johra
4. Vani tripathi

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

Click Here to Buy Test Series for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here to Join Online Course for IBPS Exam

Click Here to Buy Study-Kit for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here For Archive

Current Affairs For Bank, IBPS Exams - 28 July, 2015

Current Affairs for BANK, IBPS Exams

28 July 2015

:: National ::

Demise of APJ Abdul Kalam, irreparable loss for nation

  • Former President APJ Abdul Kalam, the renowned missile scientist who played a stellar role in advancing India's nuclear programme, died on Monday after collapsing at an event in Meghalaya.

  • His body was flown to Guwahati in Assam this morning and will be brought to Delhi by a special aircraft.

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi and all three service chiefs will receive his body at the airport.

  • Dr Kalam, 83, collapsed after a massive cardiac arrest while delivering a lecture at the Indian Institute of Management in Shillong last evening.

  • The government has declared a seven-day national mourning as a mark of respect for the man known and loved across the country as the "People's President".

  • The Union Cabinet will hold a special meeting in New Delhi today to condole Dr Kalam's death. His funeral is likely to be held in Rameswaram in Tamil Nadu, where he was born.

  • Paying tribute to Dr Kalam last night, PM Modi had said, "My mind is filled with so many memories, so many interactions with him. Always marvelled at his intellect, learnt so much from him."

New adoption guidelines; centralised database of children

  • A centralised databank of adoptive children, allowing single parents looking to adopt, and, treating non-resident Indians (NRIs) on par with Indian citizens are some of the revamped guidelines of the Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) introduced by the union ministry of women and child development, on Monday.

  • The guidelines will be effective from next month.

  • Under the new guidelines, an e-governance measure that will hasten the adoption process, and make it transparent by putting up the data of the adoptive children online, has been brought up.

  • The Central Adoption Resource Information Guidance System (CARINGS), a centralised system that collates the data, will be connected to the district child protection units.

  • NRIs will be treated on par with domestic adoptive parents, and a child of below five years, will be given up for adoption 60 days after being cleared for adoption.

  • A child of above five years will be given up for adoption 30 days after clearance.

  • The new guidelines have also made it possible for single parents to adopt. While single mothers can adopt children of either gender, single men can only adopt male children.

  • The minimum age difference between child and parent cannot exceed 25 years under the new guidelines.

  • The revamped guidelines were originally mooted in the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Bill, 2014.

  • But the Bill, introduced in the Rajya Sabha, has been pending for a year and a half. And WCD minister Maneka Gandhi wanted to a hassle-free adoption process, said a ministry official.

  • In 2013-14, 3924 children were given up for adoption within the country, while 3988 children were given up in 2014-15. There were 422 inter-country adoptions in 2013-14, and 374 in 2014-15.

Gujarat becomes first state to ink mandatory voting rule

  • It is official now. After dithering for long, the Gujarat government issued a notification making voting in local body elections compulsory under the controversial Gujarat Local Authorities Laws (Amendment), Act 2009 (2014).

  • The notification dated July 17, 2015 will apply to over three crore voters who are expected to cast their franchise in the upcoming civic elections in six municipal corprations, around 60 municipalities, 33 district panchayats and more than 150 taluka panchayats.

  • State has recorded 45-50 per cent voting in local bodies elections in the past. In 2010, six municipals corporations had recorded average voting of 44 per cent.

  • Following this notification, any citizen abstaining from voting in civic elections will be penalized — the punishment could be monetary fine or non-eligibility for certain civic incentives — which will be specified once the rules are framed, officials said.

  • Along with the compulsory voting notification, state government has also issued an ordinance for the addition of a clause the act for declaring the elected representatives disqualified if they do not vote.

  • In case of failure in voting the registered voter will be declared as the defaulter and against whom the designated authorities will take legal action as prescribed in the rules which will be declared shortly.

:: Business ::

Centre appoints R S Sharma,new Trai chairman

  • Ram Sewak Sharma is set to be the new chief of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (Trai), taking charge at a time when the regulator is deciding on crucial matters such as net neutrality and the way to deal with the fast-growing eco-system of over-the-top (OTT) operators, who are mushrooming over the mobile and internet world. He replaces Rahul Khullar, who retired from the job in the second week of May.

  • Sharma, a 1978-batch IAS officer of Jharkhand cadre, is currently the secretary in the department of electronics and information technology(Deity), a job that makes him thorough with matters related to the IT sector and well-versed with crucial telecom issues.

  • A formal notification is expected over the next few days, sources said. "He is seen as most experienced for the job.

  • There were a number of applicants for the high-profile job that regulates the issues related to the telecom sector and the broadcasting industry.

  • There were over 75 applicants for the position and apart from Sharma, others vying for the post included former defence secretary R K Mathur, information & broadcasting secretary Bimal Julka, former commerce secretary Rajeev Kher and steel secretary Rakesh Singh. Former RBI deputy governor Subir Gokarn was also in the fray.

  • Sharma holds a Masters Degree in Mathematics from IIT, Kanpur, and a Masters in Computer Science from the University of California.

This Current Affairs is Part of Online Course of IBPS Exams.. Register Here

Click Here for Daily News Archive

IBPS Clerk (V) 2015 Notification Released

(Notification) IBPS Clerk (V) 2015

Any eligible candidate, who aspires to join any of the Participating Organisations listed at (A) as a Clerk or in a similar post in that cadre, is required to register for the Common Recruitment Process (CWE Clerks -V). The examination will be two tier i.e. the online examination will be held in two phases, preliminary and main. Candidates who will qualify in preliminary examination and shortlisted will have to appear for Main examination and shortlisted candidates in the main examination will subsequently be called for a Common Interview to be conducted by the Participating Organisations and co-ordinated by the Nodal Banks. Depending on the vacancies to be filled in during the financial year 2016-17 based on the business needs of the Participating Organisations and as reported to IBPS, candidates shortlisted will be provisionally allotted to one of the Participating Organisations keeping in view the spirit of Govt. Guidelines on reservation policy, administrative convenience, etc. The validity for CWE Clerks-V will automatically expire at the close of business on 31.03.2017 with or without giving any notice.

PARTICIPATING ORGANISATIONS:

Allahabad Bank Canara Bank Indian Overseas Bank UCO Bank
Andhra Bank Central Bank of India Oriental Bank of Commerce Union Bank of India
Bank of Baroda Corporation Bank Punjab National Bank United Bank of India
Bank of India Dena Bank Punjab & Sind Bank Vijaya Bank
Bank of Maharashtra Indian Bank Syndicate Bank Any other bank or financial institution

Educational Qualifications:

A Degree (Graduation) in any discipline from a University recognised by the Govt. Of India or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government.

The candidate must possess valid Mark-sheet / Degree Certificate that he/ she is a graduate on the day he / she registers and indicate the percentage of marks obtained in Graduation while registering online.

Computer Literacy: Operating and working knowledge in computer systems is mandatory i.e. candidates should have Certificate/Diploma/Degree in computer operations/Language/ should have studied Computer / Information Technology as one of the subjects in the High School/College/Institute.

Proficiency in the Official Language of the State/UT (candidates should know how to read/ write and speak the Official Language of the State/UT) for which vacancies a candidate wishes to apply is preferable. (Some questions may be put at the time of interview to ascertain the candidate’s familiarity with the Official Language of the State/UT)

Age (As on 01.08.2015):

Minimum: 20 years Maximum: 28 years

i.e. a candidate must have been born not earlier than 02.08.1987 and not later than 01.08.1995 (both dates inclusive)

Exam Syllabus:

Preliminary Examination:

Sr. No. Name of Tests No. of Qs Maximum Marks Duration
1 English Language 30 30 Composite time of 1 hour
2 Numerical Ability 35 35
3 Reasoning Ability 35 35
 

Total

100 100

Main Examination:

Sr. No. Name of Tests No. of Qs Maximum Marks Duration
1 Reasoning 40 40  

Composite time of 2 hours

2 English Language 40 40
3 Quantitative Aptitude 40 40
4 General Awareness (with special reference to Banking Industry) 40 40
5 Computer Knowledge 40 40
 

Total

200 200  

The above tests except the Tests of English Language will be available bilingually, i.e. English and Hindi

Application Fees:

  • Rs. 100/- for SC/ST/PWD/EXSM candidates.
  • Rs. 600 /- for all others

Bank Transaction charges for Online Payment of application fees/ intimation charges will have to be borne by the candidate

HOW TO APPLY

Candidates can apply online only from 11.08.2015 to 01.09.2015 and no other mode of application will be accepted.

Pre-Requisites for Applying Online

Before applying online, candidates should—

(i) scan their photograph and signature ensuring that both the photograph (4.5cm × 3.5cm) and signature adhere to the required specifications as given in Annexure II to this Advertisement.
(ii) Signature in CAPITAL LETTERS will NOT be accepted.
(iii) keep the necessary details/documents ready to make Online Payment of the requisite application fee/ intimation charges
(iv) have a valid personal email ID, which should be kept active till the completion of this round of Common Recruitment Process. IBPS may send call letters for the Examination etc. through the registered e-mail ID. Under no circumstances, a candidate should share with/mention e-mail ID to / of any other person. In case a candidate does not have a valid personal e-mail ID, he/she should create his/her new e-mail ID before applying on-line and must maintain that email account.

Important Dates:

Activity Date
On-line registration including Edit/Modification of Application by candidates 11.08.2015 to 01.09.2015
Payment of Application Fees/Intimation Charges (Online) 11.08.2015 to 01.09.2015
Download of call letters for Pre- Exam Training 03.11.2015 to 17.11.2015
Conduct of Pre-Exam Training 16.11.2015 to 21.11.2015
Download of call letters for online examination – Preliminary 18.11.2015 onwards
Online Examination – Preliminary 05.12.2015, 06.12.2015,

12.12.2015, 13.12.2015

Result of Online exam – Preliminary December 2015
Download of Call letter for Online exam – Main December 2015
Online Examination – Main 02 & 03.01.2016
Declaration of Result – Main January 2016
Download of call letters for interview January 2016
Conduct of interview February 2016
Provisional Allotment April 2016

 

Courtesy: IBPS

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (25 July 2015)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (25 July 2015)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


1.The RBI governor appointed/nominated a period of----- years

1.3 years
2.4 years
3.5 years
4.2 years

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

Click Here to Buy Test Series for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here to Join Online Course for IBPS Exam

Click Here to Buy Study-Kit for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here For Archive

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (24 July 2015)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (24 July 2015)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


1.recently RBI had granted banking licence to the --------- making it the second lender after Bandhan Bank to enter the banking sector after more than a decade.

1.idfc ltd
2.RIL
3.TATA
4.infosys

2. -------- got RBI's approval last month .(after 2004)

1.mudra financial
2. Bandhan Financial
3.karyur financial
4.none of these

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

Click Here to Buy Test Series for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here to Join Online Course for IBPS Exam

Click Here to Buy Study-Kit for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here For Archive

 

(Info) Age Limit Raised to 30 Year For RRB Officers Scale-I Posts


Age Limit Raised to 30 Year For RRB Officers Scale-I Posts


To ensure fair selection process in regional rural banks ( RRB), the government today said the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) will handle all direct recruitments for these banks.

The government also raised the age limit by two years to 30 for candidates applying for officers scale-I posts.

The government was receiving various queries from candidates, RRBs and NABARD regarding some shortcomings in the recruitment process, the Finance Ministry said in a statement.

In this regard, the government has made "improvements" for making the recruitment process smooth.

"IBPS will now handle all direct recruitments for RRBs in different posts / scales including the conduct of interviews and issue of final result.

"So as to ensure fair selection process, the interview Boards have now been made independent of the bank management and would be decided by IBPS in consultation with NABARD," it added.

The Common Written Examination for recruitment of Office Assistants (Multipurpose), Officers Scale-I, II and III in RRBs is being conducted by IBPS.

The release further said the candidates will now indicate their choices for the RRBs and the local language proficiency would be checked at the time of interview.

"The upper age limit for Officers Scale-I has now been raised from 28 years to 30 years to make it in consonance with that for Public Sector Banks...The candidates between the age group of 28 and 30 years will now be able to apply for the post of Officer Scale-I in RRBs," the Ministry said.

Read More..

Courtesy: The Economic Times

(Download) RBI Assistant Exam Admit Card - 2015

http://www.bankpoclerk.com/community/sites/default/files/RBI-Assistant-LOGO.jpeg

(Download) RBI Assistant Admit Card - 2015

Exam Name: Assistant

Bank Name: RBI

Year: 2015

Click Here to Download Admit Card

Courtesy: RBI

(Result) IDBI Executive Exam "held on July 11, 2015"

(Result) IDBI Executive Exam "held on July 11, 2015"

Exam Name: Executive

Bank Name: IDBI

Exam Date: held on July 11, 2015

Click Here for Result

Courtesy: IDBI

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (20 July 2015)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (20 July 2015)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


1. The term pre shipment finance relates to

1.farm credit
2.export credit
3.consumer credit
4.industrial credit

2. which of the following is a mode for creating on life insurance policies ?

1.pledge
2.lien
3.assignment
4.equitable mortgage

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

Click Here to Buy Test Series for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here to Join Online Course for IBPS Exam

Click Here to Buy Study-Kit for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here For Archive




 

IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-I Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014, "Computer Knowledge"

IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-1 Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject : Computer Knowledge

1. Another name for a program is

(a) software
(b) procedure
(c) typology
(d) utilities
(e) userware

2. ................ is a communications technology used by some incoming mail services.

(a) Telnet
(b) TCP
(c) FTP
(d) GIF
(e) POP3

3. The two basic parts of URLs are

(a) ICP and IP
(b) TCP/IP and ISP
(c) TCP and ftp
(d) destination and device
(e) the protocol and the domain name

4. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into

(a) information
(b) programs
(c) objects
(d) charts
(e) websites

5. The ........... database is the most widely used database structur

(a) hierarchical
(b) general
(c) standard
(d) table
(e) relational

6. Mail from unwanted senders can be blocked by

(a) not buying anything online so that junk mail senders will not having anything to benefit by
(b) sending them nasty replies when they send any mail
(c) using mail filters
(d) clicking the unsubscribe link
(e) e-mailing them and asking to the removed from the list

7. POP denotes

(a) Post Office Program
(b) Post Office Protocol
(c) Protocol on Program
(d) Protocol on Protocol
(e) Program of of Programmer

8. How many gigabytes are there in a petabyte?

(a) 1000
(b) 001
(c) 100
(d) 1000000
(e) 5000000

9. For a browser to connect to other resources, the location or address of the resources must be specified. These addresses are called

(a) MSN
(b) e-mail forms
(c) packets
(d) IDs
(e) URLs

10. The extensions .gov, .edu, .mil, and .net are c

(a) mail to addresses
(b) add-ons
(c) domain codes
(d) DNSs
(e) e-mail targets

11. Software that is actively utilised by end-users (like Word or Photoshop) is called

(a) actionware
(b) operating system
(c) system software
(d) driver
(e) application software

12. Using a ............ helps to place an image into a live video conference.

(a) printer
(b) digital camera
(c) video camera
(d) webcam
(e) scanner

13. Programs designed to perform specific tasks related to managing computer resources are called

(a) operating system
(b) helper software
(c) system software
(d) application software
(e) utility programs

14. A rectangular area on a computer screen that can contain a document, program or messages is referred to as a (n)

(a) field
(b) opening
(c) window
(d) tuplet
(e) cell

15. The storage locations in the internal storage of a CPU are called

(a) reference points
(b) addresses
(c) contents
(d) mask
(e) locations

16. Of the following types of computers, which is the most powerful?

(a) Laptop
(b) Mainframe computer
(c) Minicomputer
(d) Supercomputer
(e) Microcomputer

17. An input device, which can read characters directly from an ordinary piece of paper, is

(a) OMR
(b) POS
(c) OCR
(d) MSI
(e) CD

18. The radian of a number system

(a) has nothing to do with digit position value
(b) equals the number of its distinct counting digits
(c) is more than the number of its distinctcounting digits
(d) is always an even number
(e) is variable

19. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) passwords are case sensitive.
(b) passwords are not echoed on the screen for security resasons.
(c) A good password should be no more than six characters long.
(d) password is a secret code that authenticates a person to the computer.
(e) passwords should be changed frequently

20. The most common method for gaining access to the internet is through a

(a) dumb terminal
(b) keyboard
(c) provider or host computer
(d) virtual provider provider or computer
(e) point-to-point computer

21. Which of the following is a format for storing and backing up computer data on tape that evolved from the Digital Audio Tape (DAT) technology?

(a) Audio interchange file format
(b) Digital data storage
(c) Virtual tape system
(d) Tape archive
(e) Data aggregation

22. A compiler means

(a) keypunch operator
(b) computer data collector
(c) a person who compiles source programs
(d) a program which translates source program into object program
(e) the same thing as a programmer

23. Specialised programs designed to allow particular input or output devices to communicate with the rest of the computer system are called

(a) compilers
(b) action drivers
(c) interpreters
(d) device drivers
(e) operating systems

24. .......... get transmitted across the web by harmful chain letters and hoaxes.

(a) Flames and infections
(b) Flames
(c) Wamings
(d) Viruses
(e) Infections

25. ATM machines run .......... OS.

(a) network
(b) web
(c) embedded
(d) disintegrated
(e) open source

26. Moving from one website to another is called

(a) jumping
(b) applying
(c) surfing
(d) moving
(e) shifting

27. In a client/server network, the user's computer is considered the

(a) client
(b) website
(c) library
(d) server
(e) hoster

28. A program that is used to view websites is called a

(a) word processor
(b) spreadsheet
(c) browser
(d) web viewer
(e) viewer

29. The physical component of a computer that processes data in order to create information is called the

(a) specialware
(b) typology
(c) software
(d) hardware
(e) compiler

30. An emerging trend is to free users from owning and storing applications by using

(a) word processing packages
(b) backup applications
(c) applications packages
(d) storage packages
(e) web-based applications

31. Which is a secondary memory device?

(a) Mouse
(b) Floppy disk
(c) Scanner
(d) CPU
(e) ALU

32. Which of the following is possible with open architecture?

(a) A minimum of six new devices to be added to a computer
(b) Hot swapping of devices.
(c) Users to upgrade and add new devices as they come on the market.
(d) All hardware, input and output devices to be located in one efficient box
(e) A minimum of four new devices to be added to a computer.

33. ............. are special visual and sound effects contained in presentation graphics file.

(a) Attractions
(b) Simulations
(c) Animatronics
(d) Graphics
(e) Animations

34. Step-by-step instructions that run the computer are

(a) CPUs
(b) Programs
(c) Solutions
(d) Hardware
(e) Documents

35. The process of writing computer instructions in a programming language is known as

(a) processing
(b) algorithming
(c) coding
(d) file
(e) instrucitoning

36. Which of the following refers to too much electricity and may cause a voltage surge

(a) Shock
(b) Anomaly
(c) Splash
(d) Spike
(e) Virus

37. Rules for exchaning data between computers are called

(a) procedures
(b) protocols
(c) hyperlinks
(d) programs
(e) hyper-actions

38. Which of the following is used to write webpages?

(a) URL
(b) HTML
(c) HTTP
(d) FTP
(e) Telnet

39. ........... is the most important/powerful computer in a typical network.

(a) Network client
(b) Desktop
(c) Network switch
(d) Network station
(e) Network server

40. Raw, unprocessed facts, including text, numbers, images and sounds, are calle

(a) applets
(b) data
(c) melaware
(d) items
(e) java

<< Go Back To Main Page
 

IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-I Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014, "Quantitative Aptitude"

IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-1 Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject : Quantitative Aptitude

1. A sold an article with 10% loss on the cost price. He bought the article at a discount of 20% on the labelled price. What would have been the percentage loss had he bought it at the labelled price?

(a) 34
(b) 18
(c) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
(d) 28
(e) 16

Directions (Q. Nos. 2-6) Refer to the line graph and answer the given questions.

Data Related to Income and Expenditure (In Rs. Hundred) of a Businessman during 7 Years

Note

· Profit = Income – Expenditure
· Loss = Expenditure – Income
· Percent Profit = (Profit/Expenditure) × 100
· Percent Loss = (Loss/Expenditure) × 100

2. What is the average profit earned by the businessman in 2001, 2003, 2004, 2006 and 2007 together?

(a) Rs. 27400
(b) Rs. 28800
(c) Rs. 29200
(d) Rs. 26800
(e) Rs. 28400

3. What is the percent loss incurred by the businessman in 2002 and 2005 together?


 

4. The respective ratio of expenditure of the businessman in 2003 and 2008 was 7 : 13. If the end earned a profit of 19% in 2008, what was his income in that particular year?

(a) Rs. 94060
(b) Rs. 93720
(c) Rs. 92820
(d) Rs. 90560
(e) Rs. 88760

5. What is the approximate percent profit earned by the businessman in 2004 and 2007 together?

(a) 73
(b) 79
(c) 77
(d) 69
(e) 64

6. What is the ratio between profit earned by the businessman in 2003 and 2006 together and loss incurred by him in 2002 and 2005 together?

(a) 9 : 8
(b) 11 : 8
(c) 17 : 14
(d) 7 : 6
(e) 13 : 12

7. In a class, the average age of both male and female students together is 18 years. The total age of these 15 female students is 240. Definitely how many male students are there in the class?

(a) 20
(b) 40
(c) 30
(d) Data provided are inadequate to answer the question
(e) 25

Directions (Q. Nos. 8-12) In the given questions, two equations are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer.

8.

I. x2 + 3x – 28 = 0
II. y2 – y – 20 = 0

9.

I. 5x2 + 11x + 6 = 0
II. y2 + 34y – 336 = 0

10.

I. 2x2  + 18x + 40 = 0
II. 2y2 + 15y + 27 = 0

11.

I. 6x2 – 29x + 35 = 0
II. 3y2 – 11y + 10 = 0

12.

I. x2 + x – 20 = 0
II. y2 – y – 30 = 0

Directions (Q. Nos. 13-17) What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given number series?

13. 3600 1800 600 150 30 ?

(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 15
(e) 7.5

14. 33 16.5 ? 24.75 49.5 123.75

(a) 16.5
(b) 13.5
(c) 22.5
(d) 20.5
(e) 12.5

15. 20 23 30 43 64 ?

(a) 85
(b) 92
(c) 95
(d) 99
(e) 88

16. 44 ? 99 148.5 222.75 334.125

(a) 72
(b) 77
(c) 66
(d) 54
(e) 84

17. 2 4 10 ? 82 244

(a) 28
(b) 30
(c) 46
(d) 48
(e) 34

Directions (Q. Nos. 18-20) Study the table and answer the given questions :

Data Related to Number of Employees in Six

Companies During 6 Years


M = Male; F = Female

18. What is the difference between average number of male employees in all the given companies in 2006 and average number of female employees in all the given companies in 2009?

(a) 68
(b) 64
(c) 58
(d) 52
(e) 74

19. Total number of female employees in company L in 2004, 2005, 2006 and 2007 together is what percent more than the total number of female employees in company T in the same years together? (Rounded off to nearest integer)

(a) 20
(b) 14
(c) 18
(d) 12
(e) 16

20. In which of the given years is percentage increase in the number of male employees of company T from previous year the highest ?

(a) 2009
(b) 2007
(c) 2008
(d) 2005
(e) 2006

21. Total number of female employees in company J during all the given years together is what percent of the total number of male employees in company I during all the given years together?

(a) 87
(b) 93
(c) 89
(d) 91
(e) 95

22. What is the respective ratio between total number of employees (male and female) in companies J, K and N together in 2006 and total number of employees (male and female) in the same companies together in 2007?

(a) 11 : 16
(b) 13 : 16
(c) 9 : 14
(d) 11 : 18
(e) 13 : 18

23. The numerical value of area of a rectangular field is 90 times the numerical value of its breadth. If the perimeter of field is 240 metres, what is the breadth of the field ?

(a) 60 m
(b) Data provided are not inadequate to answer the question
(c) 30 m
(d) 20 m
(e) 15 m

24. A’s monthly income is Rs. 10000 less than B’s monthly income. B’s monthly income is Rs. 15000 less than C’s monthly income. If the total monthly income of A, B and C together is Rs. 65000. What is A’s monthly income?

(a) Rs. 10000
(b) Rs. 15000
(c) Rs. 20000
(d) None of the answers given is correct
(e) Rs. 5000

25. The total present ages of P and Q is 25 years more than the present age of R. If at present Q is 5 years older than R, what is P’s present age?

(in years)

(a) 20
(b) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
(c) 40
(d) 35
(e) 30

26. The difference between the total simple interest and total compound interest compounded annually at the same rate of interest on a sum of money at the end of two years is Rs. 50. What is definitely the rate of interest percent per annum?

(a) 10
(b) 4
(c) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
(d) 5
(e) 7.5

Directions (Q. Nos. 27-31) What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given questions? (You are not expected to calculate exact value)

27.

(a) 185
(b) 395
(c) 295
(d) 245
(e) 355

28.

(a) 88
(b) 44
(c) 72
(d) 50
(e) 64

29.

(a) 525
(b) 455
(c) 645
(d) 395
(e) 275

30.

(a) 32
(b) 39
(c) 24
(d) 28
(e) 12

31. 12.95 × 7.05 + 85.012 × 10.99 = ?

(a) 77586
(b) 77776
(c) 79566
(d) 78356
(e) 76876

32. One-fourth of two-fifth of 30% of a number is 15. What is 20% of that number?

(a) 100
(b) 50
(c) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
(d) 200
(e) 75

33. The ratio between the base and height of a right angled triangle is 4 : 5, respectively. If the area of the right angled triangle is 80 sq cm, what is the height of the triangle?

Directions (Q. Nos. 34-38) Read the information given in the passage and answer the given questions:

There are 19000 students in College ‘P’. Each of them are studying either one or more of the given languages – Japanese,Korean and Latin. The respective ratio of male and female students is 9 : 11.

14% of the male students study only Japanese. 12% study only Korean and 20% study only Latin. 16% of the male students study only Japanese and Korean, 22% study only Korean and Latin and 8% study only Japanese and Latin. The remaining male students study all the given languages.

22% of the female students study only Japanese, 18% study only Korean and 20% study only Latin. 12% of the female students study only Japanese and Korean, 16% study only Korean and Latin and 10% study only Japanese and Latin. The remaining female students study all the given languages.

34. Number of male students who study more than one of the given languages is what percent more than the number of female students who study more than one of the given languages?

35. How many male students study Japanese?

(a) 3389
(b) 3572
(c) 3933
(d) 3782
(e) 3258

36. What is the respective ratio between number of male students who study Korean and number of female students who study the same?

(a) 58 : 59
(b) 57 : 88
(c) 87 : 88
(d) 63 : 64
(e) 61 : 62

37. What is the difference between number of female students who study Latin and number of male students who study the same?

(a) 43
(b) 76
(c) 83
(d) 62
(e) 57

38. Number of male students who do not study Korean is what percent of the number of female students in college P?

39. The sum of two even numbers is 6 more than twice of the smaller number. If the difference between these two numbers is 6, what is definitely the smaller number?

(a) 18
(b) 20
(c) Data provided are not adequate to answer the question
(d) 12
(e) 24

40. Sixteen men and twelve women together can complete a work in eight days. Twenty men can complete the same work in sixteen days. How many days will sixteen women take to complete the same work?

(a) 40
(b) 30
(c) 24
(d) 20
(e) 10

<< Go Back To Main Page

 

IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-I Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014, "English"

IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-1 Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject : English Language

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Which of the phrases given against the sentence should replace the word/phrase given in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select ‘No correction required’ as the answer.

1. Rich mineral resources and the government present willing to build infrastructure will attract plenty of foreign investment.

(a) government willingly present
(b) government presence is willing
(c) government is present but willing
(d) present government’s willingness
(e) No correction required

2. One of the city’s advantages including a good education system, attractive quality of life and a good transport system which can cope with its rising population.

(a) One of the city’s advantages include
(b) Some of the city’s advantages include
(c) The city has advantages included
(d) Many of the city’s advantages are included
(e) No correction required

3. Regulators in America have plans to increase the amount of capital that its eight largest banks can held and banks will have until 2018 to comply.

(a) increased the amount
(b) increase in the amount
(c) which increases the amount
(d) by increasing amounts
(e) No correction required

4. If we revise the school curriculum, colleges will not only get more quality of students but companies will also get skilled employees.

(a) most quality students
(b) good quality of the student
(c) students of best qualities
(d) better quality students
(e) No correction required

5. By running small dairy farms and selling the milk to factories, the women of the village takes care the needs of their families.

(a) woman of the village caring for
(b) woman of a village will care
(c) women of the village take care of
(d) village women taking care of
(e) No correction required

Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) Rearrange the given six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequence so as to form a meaning paragraph and then answer the given questions.

A. So while these partnerships are at times messy and controversial, on balance, they are a force for good.

B. NGOs help compaines reach and meet the needs of parts of the market that companies do not understand, such as the marginalised, where NGOs have unique insight.

C. But before concluding that such partnerships are valueless it is worth recalling the reasons why they took off in the first place.

D. For NGOs too, partnerships with firms have their uses, with companies providing money and ways of influencing the mindandbehaviour of millions of people.

E. There are many opponents to the close ties between companies and charities (Non-governmental Organisations-NGOs).

F. NGOs are also better than companies at attracting and retaining idealistic talent, who sometimes end up even being absorbed by the companies to administer the policies they had advocated when they worked for NGOs.

6. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

7. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) F

8. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

9. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
(d) E
(e) F

10. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) Read these sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in them. The error, If any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation if any)

11. Though the idea of high speed trains is/apprealingly, studies show that countries which/have such trains have found that they are much/more expensive than expected and are not used much.

(a) Though the idea of high speed trains is
(b) Appealingly, studies show that countries which
(c) have such trains have found that they are much
(d) more expensive than expected and are not used much
(e) No error

12. Innovations especially into a the field of/information technology can help to increase/the wages of the workforce provided/workers have the necessary skills.

(a) Innovations especially into the field of
(b) Information technology can help to increase
(c) the wages of the workforce provided
(d) workers have the necessary skills
(e) No error

13. While the country spend about $ 800 million on fireworks/every year, at a cost of only $ 74 million it/is set to launch a rocket into space to/orbit Mars and gather data about the planet.

(a) While the country spend about $ 800 million on fireworks
(b) every year, at a cost of only $ 74 million at
(c) is set to launch a rocket into space to
(d) orbit Mars and gather data about the planet
(e) No error

14. The government plans to launch a new healthcare system which/consists of a website where people’s registration for insurance,/ a data centre which stores records and an interface/which provides insurance companies with informaton.

(a) The government plans to launch a new healthcare system which
(b) consists of a website where people’s registration for insurance
(c) a data centre which stores records and an interface
(d) which provides insurance companies with information
(e) No error

15. Over half of China’s 1.4 billion population/lives in villages and the most pressing/problem faces the country today/is the lack of rural reforms.

(a) Over half of China’s 1.4 billion population
(b) lives in villages and the most pressing
(c) problem faces the country today
(d) is the lack of rural reforms
(e) No error

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) These sentences have two blanks each indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words of the blanks which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

16. Young people may be ....... the ability to read emotions, as digital devices such as smartphones are .......... their face-to-face social skills.

(a) faking, hiding
(b) affecting, stopping
(c) losing, limiting
(d) failing, hindering
(e) mastering, providing

17. .......... are the days when consumers were passive passengers with little of .......... choice over the design of the product.

(a) Went, less
(b) Past, much
(c) Gone, no
(d) Extinct, nil
(e) Lost, so

18. Researchers .......... that eating less meat would help in .......... water resources in dry areas around the world.

(a) opine, conserve
(b) said, procuring
(c) suggest, removing
(d) prove, store
(e) believe, preserving

19. The government is ......... on launching a system to strictly monitor ............. of industrial wastes.

(a) keen, treatment
(b) thinking, capturing
(c) contemplating, cure
(d) interested, disposal
(e) eager, healing

20. Scientists, from across the country, have ......... emphasis on the need to take immediate steps to ............ the issue of climate change.

(a) placed, stop
(b) paid, halt
(c) given, hold
(d) laid, address
(e) put, clear

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-30) Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

Rural development in India has witnessed several changes over the years in its emphasis, approaches, strategies and programmes. It has assumed a new dimension and perspectives as a consequence. Rural development can be richer and more meaningful only through the participation of clienteles of development. Just as implementation is the touchstone for planning people’s participationis the centre-piece in rural development.

People’s participation is one of the foremost pre-requisites of development process both from procedural and philsophical perspectives. For the development planners and administrators, it is important solicit the participation of different groups of rural people, to make the plans participatory.

Rural Development aims at imporving rural people’s livelihoods in an equitable and sustainable manner, both socially and environmentally, through better access to assets and services, and control over productive capital.

The basic objectives of Rural Development Programmes have been alleviation of poverty and unemployment through creation of basic social and economic infrastructure, provision of training to rural unemployed youth and providing employment to marginal farmers/labourers to discourage seasonal and permanent migration to urban areas.

Rural Development is the main pillar of our nation’s development. In spite of rapid urbanisation, a large section of our population still lives in the villages. Secondly, rural India has lagged behind in development because of many historical factors.

Though, the 11th Plan began in very favourable circumstances with the economy having grown at the rate of 7.7% per year in the 10th Plan period, there still existed a big challenge to correct the development imbalances and to accord due priority to development in rural areas.

Ministry of Rural Development is implementing a number of programmes aimed at sustainable holistic development in rurual areas. The thrust of these programmes is on all round economic and social transformation in rural areas, though in multi-pronged strategy, aiming to reach out to the most disadvantaged sections of the society. Although concerted efforts have been initiated by the government of India through several plans and measures to alleviate poverty in rural India, there still remains much more to be done to bring propertiy in the lives of the people in rural areas.

At present, technology dissemination is uneven and slow in the rural areas. Good efforts of organisations developing technologies, devices and products for rural areas could not yield high success. Experiences of many countries suggest that technological development fuelled by demand has a higher dissemination rate. However, in India, technology developers for rural areas have been catering to needs, rather than creating demand.

There is no industry linkage machinery to create demand based-technology market for rural communities. Besides, there is also an imbalance between strategies and effective management programmes. Propagation of technolgy/schemes for rural development is slow and there is lack of wider participation of different stakeholders.

An ideal approach may therefore, include the government, panchayats, village personnel, researchers, industries NGOs and private companies to not only help in reducing this imbalance but also to have a multiplier effect on the overall economy.

21. According to the passage, which of the following are the objectives of most Rural Development Programmes?

A. To promote urbanisation.
B. Provide training to youth.
C. Reducing unemployment.

(a) A and C
(b) Only C
(c) B and C
(d) All of these
(e) Only A

22. As per the passage, the basic objectives of Rural Development Programmes have been alleviation of poverty and .......... through creation of basic social and economic infrastructure.

(a) dissemination
(b) unemployment
(c) attenuation
(d) infrastructure
(e) None of the above

23. According to the passage, experiences of many countries suggest that technological development fuelled by demand has a higher ......... rate.

(a) dissemination
(b) promulgation
(c) promotion
(d) circulation
(e) attenuation

24. Which of the following is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in the bold as used in the passage?
Propagation

(a) Dissemination
(b) Promulgation
(c) Promotion
(d) Circulation
(e) None of the above

25. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

A. Urbanisation has resulted in a majority of Indian population living in urban areas.
B. The economic growth of the 10th five year plan did not translate into proportionate rural development.
C. The efforts of the government of India for poverty alleviation have been met with complete failure.

(a) A and B
(b) Only C
(c) A and C
(d) Only B
(e) All of the above

26. Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in the bold used in the passage?
Touchstone

(a) Yardstick
(b) Periphery
(c) Sensitivity
(d) Weakners
(e) Hurdle

27. According to the passage, what ails the process of technology aided development in rural areas?

A. Creation of demand for technology aided development in rural areas is missing
B. There is lack of participation of rural people in the process of technology aided development
C. There is dearth of appropriate linkages needed for bringing about technology aided development.

(a) Only C
(b) B and C
(c) Only A
(d) A and B
(e) All of these

28. Which of the following can be the most suitable title for the passage?

(a) Technology in Rural India
(b) The Rural Indian Communities
(c) Rural Development-The Participative Way
(d) Rural India-Ignored by All the Stakeholders
(e) Rural Development-An impossible Dream

29. Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in the bold as used in the passage?
Alleviation

(a) Reduction
(b) Attenuation
(c) Damp
(d) Diminish
(e) Assnage

30. Which of the followingis most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage?

Equitable

(a) Troubled
(b) Unfair
(c) Separated
(d) Futuristic
(e) Just

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-40) In the given passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find the appropriate word in each case.

Confidence in the global economy is (151) improving, as evidenced by the bullish behaviour of financial markets and by increasingly positive comments from companies and policy makers over the past few weeks.

While economists have generally argued in (152) of a robust recovery, both in the world economy and in financial markets, it is when investors get (153) bullish that the pessimistic case deserves more (154).

Many of them believe that the current improvement in global conditions is just a blip and that the world faces years, if not decades, of ‘secular stagnation’. How (155) should we take these foreboding statements?

The good news is that there is not much (156) of secular stagnation in global statistics. For the world economy as a whole, the ‘new normal’ since 2008 has not, infact, been very (157) from the pre-crisis period. The average growth of the global economy, from 1988 to 2007, was 3.6%, according to the IMF’s Economic Outlook database. Its latest forecast for this year is the same, 3.6%, although the IMF Managing Director hinted at a modest (158) this week.

At first sight, this continuity from the pre-crisis decades seems (159) to square with the slowdown in economic activity in all major economies since 2008. The IMF expects only 2.2% growth this year in developed countries compared with an average of 2.8% during the two decades before the crisis. In the emerging economies, meanwhile, growth is (160) at 4.8% this year, slightly below the 4.9% of the pre-crisis decades.

31. (a) heavily
(b) steadily
(c) tremendously
(d) highly
(e) regularly

32. (a) approval
(b) favour
(c) account
(d) side
(e) grace

33. (a) together
(b) collective
(c) wild
(d) uniformly
(e) distributive

34. (a) weight
(b) meaning
(c) attraction
(d) notice
(e) attention

35. (a) easily
(b) seriously
(c) badly
(d) simply
(e) much

36. (a) evidence
(b) example
(c) sample
(d) clue
(e) information

37. (a) similar
(b) unlike
(c) distinctive
(d) different
(e) identical

38. (a) reduce
(b) crash
(c) subside
(d) flop
(e) decline

39. (a) hard
(b) default
(c) difficulty
(d) hit
(e) roughly

40. (a) highlighted
(b) depicted
(c) projected
(d) progressed
(e) assumed

<< Go Back To Main Page

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (18 July 2015)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (18 July 2015)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


1. posco is a ------ giant

1.french
2.south Korean
3.sweedish
4.german

2. DoT set up a committee on net neutrality under the chairmanship of

1. A K Mittal
2.V Umashankar
3.Shashi Ranjan Kumar
4. A K Bhargava

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

Click Here to Buy Test Series for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here to Join Online Course for IBPS Exam

Click Here to Buy Study-Kit for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here For Archive

 

IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-I Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014, "General Awareness"

IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-1 Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject : General Awareness

1. India’s largest 700 MW ultra mega solar power plant is planned in the State of Madhya Pradesh in

(a) Bhopal district
(b) Ujjain district
(c) Khandwa district
(d) Rewa district
(e) Indore district

2. India’s Tax Administration Reform Commission submitted its first report to Finance Minister in the June, 2014 and this Commission is headed by

(a) YV Reddy
(b) D. Subba Rao
(c) Other than those given as options
(d) Parthasarathy Shome
(e) Bimal Jalan

3. The process by which the central bank of a country controls the supply of money in the economy by exercising its control over interest rates in order to maintain price stability and achieve high economic growth is known as

(a) Economic Policy
(b) Monetary Policy
(c) Fiscal Policy
(d) Credit Policy
(e) Budgetary Policy

4. Through the ‘Clean India’ campaign, the Union government has set a target to make country free from dysfunctional toilets by the year

(a) 2016 (b) 2017
(c) 2018 (d) 2019
(e) 2020

5. The Depositor Education & Awareness Fund (DEAF) has been set-up with

(a) Public Sector Banks
(b) Indian Banks Association
(c) State Bank of India
(d) Reserve Bank of India
(e) Government of India

6. Who amongst the following has recently been selected to receive the 2014 Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana Award for his outstanding contribution towards the promotion of communal harmony, peace and goodwill?

(a) Dalai Lama
(b) Pt. Hari Prasad Chaurasia
(c) Shyam Benegal
(d) Muzaffar Ali
(e) Illayaraja

7. The ‘World’s AIDS Day’ is observed throughout the world on

(a) first of December every year
(b) last Monday of September
(c) last Sunday of November
(d) first of November every year
(e) first Sunday of October

8. The ‘Cabinet Committee on Investments’ has been set-up to

(a) scrutinise investment proposals
(b) attract overseas investors
(c) facilitate stalled projects
(d) market the policies of the government
(e) clear investment proposals expeditiously

9. The official currency of the ‘Republic of Austria’ is

(a) Euro
(b) Peso
(c) Austrian pound
(d) Lira
(e) Austrian dollar

10. The host of the Eighteenth (2014) SAARC summit is

(a) Sri Lanka
(b) India
(c) Bhutan
(d) Pakistan
(e) Nepal

11. The remote sensing satellite ‘Yaogan XX’ has recently been put in orbit by

(a) Australia
(b) Singapore
(c) China
(d) Thailand
(e) New Zealand

12. Nobel laureate and recipient of the US Presidential Medal and also the US Congressional Medal, Muhammed Yunus is well-known for his contribution to Bangladesh’s

(a) consumer credit sector
(b) agro credit sector
(c) housing finance sector
(d) micro credit sector
(e) retail credit sector

13. During FIFA World Cup 2014, which player has broke the record for leading goal scorer in the World Cup tournaments?

(a) Lionel Messi
(b) Philip Lahm
(c) Paul Pogba
(d) Miroslav Klose
(e) Cristiano Ronaldo

14. Which of the following is the official Capital of Sweden?

(a) Belfast
(b) Rome
(c) Berne
(d) Stockholm
(e) Montreal

15. In which of the following States, there is no Regional Rural Bank?

(a) Karnataka
(b) Goa
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Punjab
(e) Himachal Pradesh

16. The abbreviation NTCA stands for

(a) National Thermal Control Authority
(b) National Terrorist Control Authority
(c) National Transportation Control Authority
(d) National Transport Corporation Authority
(e) National Tiger Conservation Authority

17. Gagan Narang is an Indian sportsman associated with

(a) Badminton
(b) Air rifle shooting
(c) Golf
(d) Wrestling
(e) Athletics

18. As stated by Arun Jaitley in his Budget Speech for 2014-15, the amount provided for 2014-15 for the Welfare of SC under the ‘SC Plan’ is

(a) Rs. 50548 crore
(b) Rs. 54548 crore
(c) Rs. 32548 crore
(d) Rs. 32387 crore
(e) Rs. 50387 crore

19. Lok Sabha Speaker Sumitra Mahajan has recently set-up a special committee to suggest measures for further strengthening of the security or the Parliament. The committee is headed by former

(a) Rajasthan DGP Harish Chandra Meena
(b) Delhi Police Commissioner Neeraj Kumar
(c) Union Home Secretary RK Singh
(d) CBI Director Amar Pratap Singh
(e) Mumbai Police Commissioner Satya Pal Singh

20. James Bond, often referred by his code name, 007 is the fictional protagonist of a series of novels and short stories, first published in 1953. The character was originally created by journalist and author

(a) John Pearson
(b) Kingsley Amis
(c) lan Fleming
(d) Raymond Benson
(e) Johan Gardner

21. In India, the regulator of the commodity market is

(a) Forward Markets Commission (FMC)
(b) National Stock Exchange (NSE)
(c) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(d) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA)
(e) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

22. For his role in one of the biggest corporate frauds in the country, market regulator SEBI recently barred B. Ramalinga Raju, founder and former Chairman of Satyam Computer Services from the market for a period of

(a) 18 years
(b) 12 years
(c) 10 years
(d) 21 years
(e) 14 years

23. As per Census 2011, the total population of India on March 1, 2011 was 1210.6 million. Of this, the urban population was

(a) 433.1 million
(b) 399.1 million
(c) 477.1 million
(d) 377.1 million
(e) 499.1 million

24. In order to promote financial inclusion, the Reserve Bank of India has recently allowed minors to operate bank accounts independently provided their age is above

(a) 14 years
(b) 13 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 10 years
(e) 8 years

25. Finance Minsiter Arun Jaitley recently announced launch of ‘Van Bandhu Kalyan Yojana’ for the welfare of

(a) Tribal Communities
(b) Economically Weaker Sections
(c) Minority Communities
(d) Other than those given as options
(e) Rural and Village Communities

26. The recent WTO talks failed to agree on TFA or Global Customs Rules. Expand the term TFA.

(a) Trade Fostering Agreement
(b) Trade Factoring Agreement
(c) Trade Facilitation Agreement
(d) Trade Featuring Agreement
(e) Other than those given as options

27. The Cabinet Minister for Road Transport, Highways and Shipping in the Union Cabinet is

(a) Nitin Jairam Gadkari
(b) D. Sadananda Gowda
(c) Piyush Goyal
(d) Rajnath Singh
(e) M. Venkaiah Naidu

28. The process of conversion of a physical cheque into electronic form is known as

(a) Cheque Negotiation
(b) Cheque Endorsement
(c) Cheque Truncation
(d) Cheque Alteration
(e) Cheque Crossing

29. The earlier system of Prime Lending Rate (PLR) has now been replaced by

(a) Reverse Repo Rate System
(b) Repo Rate System
(c) Exchange Rate System
(d) Bank Rate System
(e) Base Rate System

30. The Tata Sons - Singapore Airlines joint venture, which is expected to launch operations by October, has recently unveiled the brand namd of its new airline as

(a) Visage
(b) Vishal
(c) Vistara
(d) Vishwas
(e) Vistas

31. Which of the following Indian compaines recently crossed the Rs. 5 lakh crore mark in market cpitalisation to become the second most valuable IT services company in the world?

(a) HCL Technologies
(b) Wipro
(c) Tech Mahindra
(d) Tata Consultancy Services
(e) Infosys

32. As many as three Asiatic lions, brought from Gir Forest of Gujarat 57 years ago, which led to a population of 11 in last count in 1965, have vanished from the

(a) Kaziranga National Park in Asom
(b) Bandipur National Park in Karnataka
(c) Chandraprabha Wildlife Sanctuary near Varanasi
(d) Bandhavgarh National Park in Madhya Pradesh
(e) Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand

33. The Arjuna Awards selection committee for choosing outstanding sportspersons of the country for the year 2014 was headed by former Indian cricket captain

(a) Sourav Ganguly
(b) Sunil Gavaskar
(c) Rahul Dravid
(d) Azharuddin
(e) Kapil Dev

34. In his budget (2014-15) speech Finance Minister had announced setting of a Commission to look into various aspects of expenditure reforms. Accordingly an Expenditure Management Commission has recently been set-up. The Commission is headed by

(a) Subir Gokarn
(b) YV Reddy
(c) D. Subbarao
(d) Dr. Bimal Jalan
(e) Sumit Bose

35. A banknote, of which a portion is missing or which is composed of more than two pieces, is known as

(a) a mutilated banknote
(b) a counterfeit banknote
(c) a soiled banknote
(d) a damaged banknote
(e) a defective banknote

36. As per Article-104 of the Constitution, the seat is considered vacant, if a member is absent from either House of Parliament for a period of

(a) 30 days
(b) 91 days
(c) 45 days
(d) 60 days
(e) 120 days

37. The author of the book ‘Strictly Personal, Manmohan and Gursharan’ recently published by Harper Collins is

(a) Natwar Singh
(b) PC Parekh
(c) Gursharan Kaur
(d) Sanjaya Baru
(e) Daman Singh

38. The national capital of Brazil is

(a) Quito
(b) Santiago
(c) Salvador
(d) Brasilia
(e) Bogota

39. The scientist, who co-discovered the deadly ‘Ebola’ strain in 1976, is

(a) Peter Piot
(b) Butel Janet
(c) Paul Farrell
(d) Michel Heffernan
(e) Grahm David

40. In his Budget (2014-15) speech, Minister of Railways DV Sadananda Gowda has informed that the number of unmanned Level Crossings is around

(a) 11563
(b) 21348
(c) 21563
(d) 30348
(e) 11348

<< Go Back To Main Page

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (16 July 2015)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (16 July 2015)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


1. The depositor education & awareness fund has been set up with

1.state bank of india
2.RBI
3.Central government
4.finance ministry

2. who is the national security advisor of india ?

1.k.subramanian
2.s.jaishankar
3.ajit dobhal
4.none of these

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

Click Here to Buy Test Series for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here to Join Online Course for IBPS Exam

Click Here to Buy Study-Kit for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here For Archive

 

IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-I Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014, "Reasoning"

IBPS-RRBs Officer Scale-1 Previous Year Exam Paper - 2014

Subject : Reasoning

Based on Memory

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-6) These questions consist of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the most appropriate option.

1. Among friends M, N, O, P, Q and R, who is the second heaviest?

I. O is heavier than only two friends. P is heavier than Q but lighter than N. R is the heaviest.
II. M is lighter than only two friends. N is heavier than O but lighter than R. P is heavier than only Q.

(a) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(c) The data in statements I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(d) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

2. Among six people E, F, G, H, I, J standing around a circle facing the centre, what is the position of G with respect to F?

I. E stands second to the right of G. Only one person stands between E and I. F is an immediate neighbour of G.
II. Only two people sit between G and H. H is an immediate neighbour of both I and E. F is not an immediate neighbour of I.

(a) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(c) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the qusetion.
(d) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the qustion.
(e) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the quesiton.

3. In which month of the year did Rahul go abroad for his vacation?

I. Rahul correctly remembers that he went for his vacation in the first half of the year.
II. Rahul’s friend correctly remembers that he went for his vacation after 31st March and before 1st May.

(a) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(c) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(d) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

4. How many marks has Suman scoredd in a test having 20 maximum marks.

I. Suman scored two-digit even marks in the test.
II. Suman scored more than 14 but less than 18 marks in the test.

(a) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(c) The data in statement I alone are sufficient I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(d) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

5. Who among P, Q, R, S and T is the tallest?

I. P is taller than Q, T is not the tallest.
II. R is taller than P, S is not the tallest.

(a) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(c) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(d) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

6. What is the age of Rakesh in a group of four members?

I. Rakesh, Vimal and Sandeep are all of same age.
II. Total age of Vimal, Kunal and Sandeep is 32 years and Kunal is as old as Vimal and Sandeep together.

(a) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(c) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(d) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Directions (Q. Nos. 7-10) Read the given information carefully and answer the questions.
Each of the six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U has a different weight. R is heavier than T but lighter than U. Q is lighter only than P. T is not the lightest. T weighs 50 kg. The one who is the third heaviest weighs 63 kg.

7. Who is the third lightest?

(a) Q
(b) U
(c) R
(d) T
(e) P

8. Whose weight could possibly be 49 kg?

(a) S
(b) Q
(c) P
(d) R
(e) U

9. Which of the following weights correctly represents possible weight of R?

(a) 65 kg
(b) 48 kg
(c) 67 kg
(d) 61 kg
(e) 63 kg

10. Which of the following could possibly be the weight of Q?

(a) 65 kg
(b) 60 kg
(c) 62 kg
(d) 58 kg
(e) 55 kg

11. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows :
As more and more NRIs invest in property in city A, more than 100000 flats are lying vacant even as a large number of people struggle to get good accommodation in the city.

Which of the following statements represents the best possible COURSE OF ACTION in order to deal with the situation?

(a) A vacancy tax should be introduced in order to compel the owners to at least rent out the property.
(b) Purchase of property should not be allowed unless it is used for self-residential purpose.
(c) No NRI should be allowed to invest in property anywhere in India in order to protect the interests of the residents.
(d) Residents of city A should be advised to reside in neighbouring cities where the population density is comparatively lower.
(e) Property prices should be decreased considerably by the government in order to allow everyone to buy as many properties as possible.

12. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SCHEDULE’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

(a) Three
(b) None
(c) More than three
(d) One
(e) Two

13. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows :
It has been recently reported that the country’s low-cost domestic airline recently lost as many as 40 commanders or senior pilots mainly to Gulf airlines in the last one year. “Gulf airlines, have hired many pilots in big numbers in recent months and most of the senior pilots have opted for these airlines as they have been unhappy with the domestic airline for quite some time.” Source said.

Which of the following statements represents an appropriate COURSE OF ACTION to be taken by the airline in order to curtail this problem?

(a) The airline should increase the salary of all the employees and increment of the employees should be as per their grade.
(b) The airline should examine the reason for the high rate of attrition among senior employees and should focus on dealing with the concerns of the employees.
(c) The airline should recruit only those pilots who are willing to sign a bond of 5 years.
(d) The airline should improve their recruitment policies and should test the loyalty and integrity of the employees before they decide to hire them.
(e) The airline should focus on recruiting younger pilots and providing them with good training rather than focusing on retaining senior pilots.

14. Which of the following will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?

AN CQ ET GW ?

(a) HZ
(b) GY
(c) IZ
(d) HY
(e) IX

Directions (Q. Nos. 15-19) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.

15. Statements

P < L £ A >
M = K ³ E

Conclusions

I. K £ L
II. P < E

(a) Only Conclusion II is true.
(b) Either Conclusion I or II is true.
(c) Both Conclusion I and II are true.
(d) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
(e) Only Conclusion I is tr

16. Statements

P > R = A < Y;
D < A

Conclusions

I. P > D
II. D < Y

(a) Both Conclusions I and II are true.
(b) Only Conclusion I is true.
(c) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
(d) Either Conclusion I or II is true.
(e) Only Conclusion II is true.

17. Statements

P > R = A < Y;
D < A

Conclusions

I. P < Y
II. R £ D

(a) Both Conclusions I and II are true.
(b) Neither Conclusions I nor II is true.
(c) Only Conclusion I is true.
(d) Only Conclusion II is true.
(e) Either Conclusion I or II is true.

18. Statements

C ³ R > A = S £ H
R < P < Q

Conclusions

I. C > S
II. P < C

(a) Either Conclusion I or II is true.
(b) Both Conclusions I and II are true.
(c) Only Conclusion II is true.
(d) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
(e) Only Conclusion I is true.

19. Statements

C ³ R > A = S < H
R < P < Q

Conclusions

I. H ³ R
II. R < Q

(a) Both Conclusions I and II are true.
(b) Only Conclusion II is true.
(c) Only Conclusion I is true.
(d) Either Conclusion I or II is true.
(e) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true.

Directions (Q. Nos. 20-24) Study the following information to answer the questions :
In a certain code,

rural and urban divide is written as ‘na ku zu la’,

gap in rural infrastructure is written as ‘kt la vm pi’

urban planning more important is written as ‘ti na cu bu’,

more divide than gap is written as ‘pi cu dm zu’.

(All codes are two letter codes only)

20. What is the code for ‘and’ in the given code language?

(a) ku
(b) zu
(c) dm
(d) la
(e) na

21. Which of the following may represent ‘important theory planning’ in the given code language?

(a) la bu ti
(b) ti bu kt
(c) bu pi ti
(d) bu xt ti
(e) gm ti vm

22. Which of the following represents ‘more rural’ in the given code language?

(a) cu pi
(b) vm la
(c) la cu
(d) cu ti
(e) la ku

23. What does the code ‘dm’ stand for in the given code language?

(a) Either ‘gap’ or ‘more’
(b) than
(c) divide
(d) more
(e) gap

24. What is the code for ‘infrastructure’ in the given code language?

(a) zu
(b) na
(c) Either ‘kt’ or ‘vm’
(d) ta
(e) pi

25. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ‘NOEC’ using all the letters, but, each letter only once in each word?

(a) Three
(b) None
(c) One
(d) Two
(e) More than three

Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30) In these questions, there are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decidewhich of the given conclusions logically follows form the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

26. Statements

All railways are trains. No train is a station. Some stations are platforms.

Conclusions

I. All railways being platforms is a possibility.
II. No railway is a station.

(a) Only Conclusion I follows.
(b) Only Conclusion II follows.
(c) Both Conclusion I and II follows.
(d) Either Conclusion I or II follows.
(e) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.

27. Statements

All erasers are sharpeners. All sharpeners are pencils. Some pencils are pens.

Conclusions

I. No eraser is a pen.
II. All pencils are sharpeners.

(a) Only Conclusion I follows.
(b) Only Conclusion II follows.
(c) Either Conclusion I or II follows.
(d) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) Both Conclusions I and II follow.

28. Statements

All winters are summers. Some summers are springs. No spring is an autumn.

Conclusions

I. At least some winters are springs.
II. Some autumns being summers is a possibility.

(a) Either Conclusion I or II follows.
(b) Both Conclusion I and II follow.
(c) Only Conclusion I follows
(d) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) Only Conclusion II follows.

29. Statements

All erasers are sharpeners. All sharpeners are pencils. Some pencils are pens.

Conclusions

I. At least some sharpeners are pens.
II. No sharpener is a pen.

(a) Either Conclusion I or II follows.
(b) Only Conclusion II follows.
(c) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
(d) Only Conclusion I follows.
(e) Both Conclusions I and II follow.

30. Statements

All winters are summers. Some summers are springs. No spring is an autumn.

Conclusions

I. All summers can never be autumns.
II. At least some summers are winters.

(a) Either conclusion I or II follows.
(b) Both conclusion I and II follow.
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(d) Only conclusion I follows.
(e) Only conclusion II follows.

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) Study the information and answer the given questions :

Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on separate floors of a 7-floor building. Ground floor is numbered 1, first floor is numbered 2 and so on until the topmost floor is numbered 7. Each one of these is travelling to a different city viz. Delhi, Mumbai, Patna, Chennai, Kolkata, Bengaluru and Lucknow but not necessarily in the same order.

Only three people live above the floors o which P lives. Only one person lives between P and the one travelling to Bengaluru. U lives immediately below the one travelling to Mumbai. The one travelling to Mumbai lives on an even numbered floor. Only three people live between the ones travelling to Bengaluru and Patna.

T lives immediately above R. T is not ravelling to Patna. Only two people live between Q and the one travelling to Kolkata. The one travelling to Kolkata lives below the floor on which Q lives.

The one travelling to Delhi does note live immediately above or immediately below Q. S does not live immeidately above or immediately below P. V does not travel to Chennai.

31. Which of the following is true with respect to V as per the given information?

(a) The one who lives immediately below V is travelling to Mumbai.
(b) V lives on floor number 7.
(c) V lives immediately below T.
(d) V lives on the lowermost floor.
(e) V is travelling to Bengaluru.

32. Who among the following lives of floor number 3?

(a) The one travelling to Chennai.
(b) The one travelling to Kolkata.
(c) R
(d) V
(e) T

33. Who lives on the floor immediately above T?

(a) P
(b) Q
(c) S
(d) V
(e) U

34. To which of the following cities is S travelling?

(a) Mumbai
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Patna
(d) Kolkata
(e) Chennai

35. How many people live between the floors on which S and the one travelling to Mumbai live?

(a) None
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) More than three
(e) Three

Directions (Q. Nos. 36-40) Study the information and answer the given questions :

Nine friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are sitting around a circular table (with equal distances between each other) facing the centre, but not necessarily in same order.

D sits second to the right of F. Only two people sit between D and C. H is an immediate neighbour of E. Neither H nor E is an immediate neighbour of C or D. Only two people sit between A and E. G sits third to the right of A. B sits second to the left of C. Only one person sits between C and E.

36. Who amongst the following sits exactly between A and I, when counted from the left side of A?

(a) F
(b) H
(c) D
(d) E
(e) C

37. If E and B interchange their places and so do A and C, then who will sit exactly between A and E?

(a) F
(b) G
(c) B
(d) C
(e) I

38. Four among the given five pairs are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement, and thus form a group. Which amongst the following pairs does not belong to the group?

(a) B, A
(b) I, E
(c) A, D
(d) G, C
(e) H, F

39. Who sits second to the right of G?

(a) I
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E
(e) F

40. According to the given arrangement, which of the following people sits between A and B?

(a) I
(b) B
(c) D
(d) G
(e) H

<< Go Back To Main Page

(Final Result) SBI Associate Clerk Exam - 2015

http://www.bankpoclerk.com/community/sites/default/files/SBI-ASSOCIATE-CLERK-LOGO.jpeg

(Final Result) SBI Associate Clerk Exam - 2015

Exam Name: SBI Associate (Clerk)

Year: 2015

Click Here for Result

Courtesy: SBI

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (15 July 2015)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (15 July 2015)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


1.volvo buses,the bus making arm of

1.sweedan
2.france
3.japan
4.america

2.green box & amber box words are related to

1.imf
2.world bank
3.wto
4.undp

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

Click Here to Buy Test Series for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here to Join Online Course for IBPS Exam

Click Here to Buy Study-Kit for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here For Archive

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (14 July 2015)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (14 July 2015)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


1.who is the chairman of niti aayog ?

1.arvind Subramanian
2.v.k. saraswat
3.vivek debroy
4.arvind pangariya

2.shiva trilogy,famous fiction written by

1.amish tripathi
2.chetan bhagat
3.amitabh ghosh
4.vikram seth

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

Click Here to Buy Test Series for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here to Join Online Course for IBPS Exam

Click Here to Buy Study-Kit for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here For Archive

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (13 July 2015)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (13 July 2015)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


1. World Bank today announced their partnership to advance the Millennium Alliance (MA) initiative with

1.CII
2.assocham
3.ficci
4.phdcci

2. Dr Jyotsna Suri, is the first women president of

1.pnb
2.ficci
3.cii
4.cbi

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

Click Here to Buy Test Series for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here to Join Online Course for IBPS Exam

Click Here to Buy Study-Kit for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here For Archive

 

IBPS PO V Online Application Form Link Activated

IBPS logo

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection

Recruitment in POs/MTs (CWE-PO/ MT - V)

Apply Online

Pre-Requisites for Applying Online:

Before applying online, candidates should-

  • scan their photograph and signature ensuring that both the photograph and signature are within the required specifications as given in the Advertisement.
  • Keep the necessary details/documents ready if desired to make online payment of the requisite application fee/ intimation charges (In case of Offline Payment i.e. CBS candidates have to apply online, obtain a fee payment challan and then remit the necessary application fees/ intimation charges).
  • have a valid personal email ID, which should be kept active till the declaration of results of this round of CWE. IBPS may send call letters Written Examination etc. through the registered e-mail ID. Under no circumstances, a candidate should share/mention e-mail ID to / of any other person. In case a candidate does not have a valid personal e-mail ID, he/she should create his/her new e-mail ID before applying on-line and must maintain that email account.

Important Dates:

The tentative schedule of events is as follows:

Activity Dates
On-line registration including Edit/Modification of Application by candidates 10.07.2015 to 01.08.2015
Payment of Application Fees/Intimation Charges (Online) 10.07.2015 to 01.08.2015
Download of call letters for Pre- Exam Training 09.09.2015 to 19.09.2015
Conduct of Pre-Exam Training 8.09.2015 to 23.09.2015
Download of call letters for online examination -  Preliminary 23.09.2015 onwards
Online Examination – Preliminary 03.10.2015, 04.10.2015
10.10.2015, 11.10.2015
Result of Online exam – Preliminary October 2015
Download of Call letter for Online exam - Main October 2015
Online Examination – Main 31.10.2015
Declaration of Result – Main November 2015
Download of call letters for interview December 2015
Conduct of interview January 2016
Provisional Allotment April 2016

Website: http://ibps.in

<< Go Back to Main Page

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (11 July 2015)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (11 July 2015)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


1. European planemaker Airbus headquarter is situated at

1. tolouse
2. manchester
3. zeneva
4. warsa

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

Click Here to Buy Test Series for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here to Join Online Course for IBPS Exam

Click Here to Buy Study-Kit for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here For Archive

 

Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (10 July 2015)


Daily Questions Challenge for IBPS Exams (10 July 2015)

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.


1. recently india signed Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) with ----

1.russia
2.america
3.china
4.britain

Write and Discuss Your Answer with Q.No in Comment Box at the Bottom of Post.

Click Here to Buy Test Series for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here to Join Online Course for IBPS Exam

Click Here to Buy Study-Kit for IBPS, SBI Exam

Click Here For Archive


 

(Download) SBI PO (Main) Exam Admit Card - 2015

http://www.bankpoclerk.com/community/sites/default/files/SBI-PO-LOGO.jpeg

(Download) SBI PO (Main) Exam Admit Card - 2015

Exam Name: Probationary Officers (PO)

Bank Name: SBI

Year: 2015

Online Main Examination (Phase-II) to be held on 26th July 2015

Click Here to Download Admit Card

Courtesy: SBI

SBI PO (Pre.) Exam Result Released - 2015

http://www.bankpoclerk.com/community/sites/default/files/SBI-PO-LOGO.jpeg

SBI PO (Pre.) Exam Result Released - 2015

Exam Name: Probationary Officers (PO)

Bank Name: SBI

Year: 2015

The cutoff details are below :

  • Gen - 47.5
  • OBC - 42.25
  • SC -37.25
  • ST - 19.75

Click Here for Result

Courtesy: SBI

(Notification) Recruitment of Assistant at UIICL - 2015

http://www.bankpoclerk.com/community/sites/default/files/UIICL-LOGO.jpeg

(Notification) Recruitment of Assistant at UIICL - 2015

United India Insurance Co. Ltd. is a leading Public sector General insurance company wholly owned by Government of India with a gross premium of more than Rs.10,000 Crores. A rapidly growing company with more than 1600 offices, highest network in the non life insurance industry throughout the country.

Post Name: Assistant

Total Vacancies: 750

Emoluments:

Total emoluments (pre-revision) works out to approximately Rs.17,000/- p.m. in the initial stage in a Metro city. Other allowances may vary depending upon the place of posting. Apart from allowances, other benefits such as Lump sum Domiciliary Medical Benefits, Membership of Group Mediclaim Policy for reimbursement of Hospitalisation expenses, Leave Travel Subsidy and other Staff welfare schemes would be as per the rules of the Company.

Educational Qualification: (As on 30.06.2015)

Graduate from a recognized University OR

Pass in HSC / equivalent (12th pass) examination with 60% marks (50% for Ex-servicemen, SC/ST &PwD) and knowledge of Regional Language i.e. Language of the State of Recruitment is essential.

Age (as on 30.6.2015)

Minimum Age : 18 years and Maximum Age : 28 years (as on 30.06.2015).Candidates born not earlier than 1st July, 1987 and not later than 30th June, 1997 (both days inclusive) are only eligible to apply.

Selection Procedure:

All eligible candidates should apply on-line before the last date for registration of application.

a. All candidates will have to appear for the Online examination, thereafter, candidates will be shortlisted and will be called for Interview and Computer Proficiency Test.
b. Final selection will be made on the basis of performance in the Online Test, Interview and Computer Proficiency Test taken together. Merely satisfying the eligibility norms do not entitle a candidate to be called for
ONLINE Test/Computer Proficiency Test/Interview.

Written Exam Detail:

Duration of Objective Test 120 minutes

Maximum Marks for each section in Objective Online at various levels

s. no. Section No. of Questions – 40 per test Max. marks
1 Reasoning 40 50
2 English Language 40 50
3 Numerical Ability 40 50
4 General Knowledge 40 50
5 Computer Knowledge 40 50
 

Total

200 250
6 Total marks obtained shall be proportionately reduced to a base of 35 marks (A)   35
7 Interview (B)   15
8 Total (A)+(B)   50

Application fees:

  • SC/ST/PwD Rs. 75/-
  • For candidates other than SC/ST/PwD/ RS.450/-

How to Apply:

1. Candidates should go to the United India website www.uiic.co.in click on the option "APPLY ONLINE" which will open a new screen.
2. To register application, choose the tab "Click here for New Registration" and enter Name, Contact details and Email-id. A Provisional Registration Number and Password will be generated by the system and displayed
on the screen. Candidate should note down the Provisional Registration Number and Password. An Email & SMS indicating the Provisional Registration number and Password will also be sent.
3. In case the candidate is unable to complete the application form in one go, he / she can save the data already entered by choosing "SAVE AND NEXT" tab, prior to submission of the online application candidates are
advised to use the "SAVE AND NEXT" facility to verify the details in the online application form and modify the same if required. Visually Impaired candidates should fill the application form carefully and verify/ get
the details verified to ensure that the same are correct prior to final submission.
4. Candidates are advised to carefully fill and verify the details filled in the online application themselves as no change will be possible/ entertained after clicking the FINAL SUBMIT BUTTON.
5. The Name of the candidate or his /her Father/ Husband etc. should be spelt correctly in the application as it appears in the Certificates/ Mark sheets. Any change/alteration found may disqualify the candidature.
6. Validate your details and Save your application by clicking the 'Validate your details' and 'Save & Next' button.
7. Candidates can proceed to upload Photo & Signature as per the specifications given in the Guidelines for Scanning and Upload of Photograph and Signature detailed under point "C".
8. Candidates can proceed to fill other details of the Application Form.
9. Click on the Preview Tab to preview and verify the entire application form before FINAL SUBMIT.
10. Modify details, if required, and click on 'FINAL SUBMIT' ONLY after verifying and ensuring that the photograph, signature uploaded and other details filled by you are correct.
11. Click on 'Payment' Tab and proceed for payment.
12. Click on 'Submit' button.

Important Dates:

  • Online Registration commences from 07/07/2015
  • Last Date for Registration of Online applications 20/07/2015
  • Dates for Payment of Application Fee 07/07/2015 to 20/07/2015
  • Date of Online Exam (tentative)* 30th August, 2015
  • Download of Call letter for Online Examination 20th August, 2015

Click Here for Official Notification

Click Here to Apply Online

Courtesy: UIICL

(Exam Schedule) SBI PO (Main) Exam - 2015

http://www.bankpoclerk.com/community/sites/default/files/SBI-PO-LOGO.jpeg

SBI PO (Main) Exam Schedule - 2015

Exam Name: Probationary Officers (PO)

Bank Name: SBI

Year: 2015

Online Main Examination (Phase-II) to be held on 26th July 2015.

Candidates short listed for Main Examination (Phase-II) can download their Call Letter from 13th July 2015 .

Click Here for Exam Schedule

Courtesy: SBI

Pages



Subscribe to RSS - blogs